Nursing Elites

1. A patient's chart indicates a history of ketoacidosis. Which of the following would you not expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute?

• A. Vomiting
• B. Extreme Thirst
• C. Weight gain
• D. Acetone breath smell

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute ketoacidosis, a patient typically experiences rapid weight loss due to the body burning fat and muscle for energy in the absence of sufficient insulin. Therefore, weight gain would not be expected. Vomiting may occur due to the metabolic disturbances associated with ketoacidosis. Extreme thirst is a common symptom as the body tries to compensate for dehydration. Acetone breath smell is a classic sign of ketoacidosis as acetone is one of the ketones produced during this condition.

2. A patient admitted to the hospital with myocardial infarction develops severe pulmonary edema. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect the patient to exhibit?

• A. Slow, deep respirations
• B. Stridor
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Air hunger

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a patient with pulmonary edema following a myocardial infarction, the nurse should expect symptoms such as air hunger, anxiety, and agitation. Air hunger refers to the feeling of needing to breathe more deeply or more often. Other symptoms of pulmonary edema can include coughing up blood or bloody froth, orthopnea (difficulty breathing when lying down), and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (sudden awakening with shortness of breath). Slow, deep respirations (Choice A) are not typical in pulmonary edema; these patients often exhibit rapid, shallow breathing due to the difficulty in oxygen exchange. Stridor (Choice B) is a high-pitched breathing sound often associated with upper airway obstruction, not typically seen in pulmonary edema. Bradycardia (Choice C), a slow heart rate, is not a characteristic symptom of pulmonary edema, which is more likely to be associated with tachycardia due to the body's compensatory response to hypoxia and increased workload on the heart.

3. Which of the following glands found in the skin secretes a liquid called Sebum?

• A. Apocrine Glands
• B. Sebaceous Glands
• C. Lacrimal Glands
• D. Sweat Glands

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sebum is a liquid secreted by glands in the skin known as sebaceous glands. Sebum's primary function is to lubricate the skin and help maintain its integrity. Apocrine glands secrete a different type of sweat that is odorless but can develop an odor when combined with bacteria on the skin. Lacrimal glands produce tears to keep the eyes moist, and sweat glands secrete sweat to regulate body temperature through evaporation. Therefore, the correct answer is Sebaceous Glands because they specifically secrete sebum, distinguishing them from the other gland types mentioned.

4. A client is in her third month of her first pregnancy. During the interview, she tells the nurse that she has several sex partners and is unsure of the identity of the baby's father. Which of the following nursing interventions is a priority?

• A. Counsel the woman to consent to HIV screening
• B. Perform tests for sexually transmitted diseases
• C. Discuss her high risk for cervical cancer
• D. Refer the client to a family planning clinic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Counsel the woman to consent to HIV screening. The client's behavior places her at high risk for HIV. Testing is the first step in identifying and managing the risk of HIV infection. Early detection allows for timely interventions and better outcomes. While performing tests for sexually transmitted diseases (choice B) is important, addressing the immediate and potentially life-threatening risk of HIV takes precedence. Discussing the risk for cervical cancer (choice C) is not the priority at this time as HIV screening is more urgent. Referring the client to a family planning clinic (choice D) is not the immediate priority given the client's current high-risk behavior and the need to address the immediate threat of HIV infection.

5. Which patient poses the least infection risk to an immunosuppressed patient who had a liver transplant?

• A. The patient with chronic pancreatitis
• B. The patient currently infected with a respiratory virus
• C. The patient with a healing leg wound
• D. The patient with a urinary tract infection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient with a healing leg wound poses the least infection risk to an immunosuppressed patient who had a liver transplant. Chronic pancreatitis can lead to complications such as infections that can pose a risk to immunosuppressed individuals. Patients infected with respiratory viruses or urinary tract infections are actively infectious, which can put immunosuppressed patients at a higher risk of acquiring infections. Therefore, the patient with a healing leg wound is the least likely to pose an immediate infection risk.

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