a child is prescribed baclofen lioresal via intrathecal pump to treat severe muscle spasms related to cerebral palsy what teaching does the nurse pro
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Prioritization Questions

1. A child is prescribed baclofen (Lioresal) via intrathecal pump to treat severe muscle spasms related to cerebral palsy. What teaching does the nurse provide the child and parents?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct teaching for the child and parents when a child is prescribed baclofen via an intrathecal pump is to not let the prescription run out. Abrupt discontinuation of intrathecal baclofen can lead to severe effects like high fever, altered mental status, and rebound spasticity and muscle rigidity. It is crucial for the parents to ensure there is always an adequate supply of this medication to prevent these adverse effects. Choices B and D are incorrect because gingival hyperplasia and hirsutism are side effects associated with phenytoin (Dilantin), not baclofen. Choice C is incorrect as serum drug levels are not typically monitored for intrathecal medications.

2. When supporting the psychosocial needs of a client experiencing negative side effects associated with chemotherapy, which intervention is most appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is experiencing negative side effects associated with chemotherapy, addressing their psychosocial needs is crucial. One effective intervention is to determine the levels of support from significant others. This involves assessing the family, spouse, or friends who can provide help and support to the client when healthcare providers are not present. By identifying and organizing these resources, the nurse can help alleviate fears about the future, prepare caregivers for the client's needs, and facilitate a smoother transition for the client upon discharge. Reading discharge instructions, providing medications, or giving self-care instructions, although important, do not directly address the psychosocial needs of the client during this challenging time.

3. The nurse develops a plan of care to prevent aspiration in a high-risk patient. Which nursing action will be most effective?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To prevent aspiration in a high-risk patient, the most effective nursing action is to place patients with altered consciousness in side-lying positions. This position helps decrease the risk of aspiration as it prevents pooling of secretions and facilitates drainage. Turning and repositioning immobile patients every 2 hours is essential for preventing pressure ulcers and improving circulation but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Monitoring respiratory symptoms in immunosuppressed patients is crucial to detect pneumonia early, but it does not directly prevent aspiration. Inserting a nasogastric tube for feedings in patients with swallowing problems may be necessary for nutritional support but does not address the risk of aspiration directly. Patients at high risk for aspiration include those with altered consciousness, difficulty swallowing, and those with nasogastric intubation, among others. Placing patients with altered consciousness in a side-lying position is a key intervention to reduce the risk of aspiration in this population. Other high-risk groups for aspiration include those who are seriously ill, have poor dentition, or are on acid-reducing medications.

4. Which of the following clients is most appropriate for receiving telemetry?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Telemetry is used to monitor the cardiac rhythms of clients with potentially unstable conditions or those rhythms that affect activities. Clients with syncope potentially related to cardiac dysrhythmia require continuous monitoring to detect any potential life-threatening dysrhythmias. Unstable angina can be monitored in a telemetry unit, but syncope with potential cardiac causes takes precedence. Clients with sinus rhythm and PVCs may not necessitate telemetry unless there are further indications of instability. A client who had a myocardial infarction 6 hours ago is typically monitored in an intensive care unit rather than a telemetry unit.

5. What action will the nurse plan to take for a 40-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis (MS) who has urinary retention caused by a flaccid bladder?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a 40-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis experiencing urinary retention due to a flaccid bladder, teaching the Cred method is the appropriate action. The Cred method involves applying manual pressure over the bladder to aid in bladder emptying. Decreasing fluid intake is not the correct approach as it will not address the underlying issue of bladder emptying and may lead to dehydration and urinary tract infections. Using adult incontinence briefs only addresses the symptom of incontinence without addressing the bladder emptying problem. Assisting the patient to the commode every 2 hours does not actively address the issue of improving bladder emptying as effectively as teaching the Cred method.

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