Nursing Elites

1. A child is prescribed baclofen (Lioresal) via intrathecal pump to treat severe muscle spasms related to cerebral palsy. What teaching does the nurse provide the child and parents?

• A. Do not let this prescription run out.
• B. The medication may cause gingival hyperplasia.
• C. Periodic serum drug levels are needed.
• D. Watch for excessive facial hair growth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct teaching for the child and parents when a child is prescribed baclofen via an intrathecal pump is to not let the prescription run out. Abrupt discontinuation of intrathecal baclofen can lead to severe effects like high fever, altered mental status, and rebound spasticity and muscle rigidity. It is crucial for the parents to ensure there is always an adequate supply of this medication to prevent these adverse effects. Choices B and D are incorrect because gingival hyperplasia and hirsutism are side effects associated with phenytoin (Dilantin), not baclofen. Choice C is incorrect as serum drug levels are not typically monitored for intrathecal medications.

2. During an intake screening for a patient with hypertension who has been taking ramipril for 4 weeks, which statement made by the patient would be most important for the nurse to pass on to the physician?

• A. ''I get dizzy when I get out of bed.''
• B. ''I'm urinating much more than I used to.''
• C. ''I've been running on the treadmill for 10 minutes each day.''
• D. ''I can't get rid of this cough.''

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is ''I can't get rid of this cough.'' Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent, dry cough as an adverse effect. This symptom can be indicative of bradykinin accumulation caused by ACE inhibitors. It is important for the nurse to inform the physician about this side effect so that a medication change to another class of antihypertensives, such as an ARB, may be considered. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the common adverse effects of ramipril and are not as concerning for a patient on this medication.

3. A patient comes to the emergency department with abdominal pain. Work-up reveals the presence of a rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which of the following actions should the nurse expect?

• A. The patient will be admitted to the medicine unit for observation and medication.
• B. The patient will be admitted to the day surgery unit for sclerotherapy.
• C. The patient will be admitted to the surgical unit and resection will be scheduled.
• D. The patient will be discharged home to follow-up with his cardiologist in 24 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm is at significant risk of rupture, which can be life-threatening. The standard treatment for a rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm is surgical intervention to prevent rupture. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse to expect is that the patient will be admitted to the surgical unit, and resection will be scheduled. Observation and medication (Choice A) are not sufficient for a rapidly enlarging aneurysm, and sclerotherapy (Choice B) is not typically used for aortic aneurysms. Discharging the patient home (Choice D) would be inappropriate and dangerous given the risk of rupture.

4. When assessing a patient who has just arrived after an automobile accident, the emergency department nurse notes tachycardia and absent breath sounds over the right lung. For which intervention will the nurse prepare the patient?

• A. Emergency pericardiocentesis
• B. Stabilization of the chest wall with tape
• C. Administration of an inhaled bronchodilator
• D. Insertion of a chest tube with a chest drainage system

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient's history and absent breath sounds suggest a right-sided pneumothorax or hemothorax, which will require treatment with a chest tube and drainage. Emergency pericardiocentesis is not indicated as the patient's symptoms are not suggestive of cardiac tamponade. Stabilization of the chest wall with tape would not address the underlying issue of a potential pneumothorax or hemothorax. Administration of an inhaled bronchodilator is not appropriate in this scenario as the patient is not exhibiting signs of asthma or bronchoconstriction. Therefore, the correct intervention for this patient is the insertion of a chest tube with a chest drainage system to address the potential pneumothorax or hemothorax.

5. What is the cause of meningitis that is fatal in half of the infected patients?

• A. Virus
• B. Bacteria
• C. Fungus
• D. Noninfectious agent

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Bacterial meningitis is caused by bacterial pathogens such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Listeria monocytogenes, and Neisseria meningitidis. These bacteria commonly lead to acute onset meningitis, presenting with symptoms like fever, stiff neck, and altered consciousness. The statement that bacterial meningitis is fatal in about 50% of cases is accurate, making it a serious and life-threatening condition. Viruses can also cause meningitis, but they are not typically associated with the high fatality rate seen in bacterial meningitis. Fungal meningitis is less common and usually affects individuals with weakened immune systems. Noninfectious agents do not cause meningitis.

Similar Questions