Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a 2-year-old who is being treated with chelation therapy, calcium disodium edetate, for lead poisoning. The nurse should be alert for which of the following side effects?

• A. Neurotoxicity
• B. Hepatomegaly
• C. Nephrotoxicity
• D. Ototoxicity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is nephrotoxicity. Calcium disodium edetate, used in chelation therapy for lead poisoning, can lead to kidney toxicity. This is an important side effect to monitor in patients undergoing this treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Neurotoxicity, hepatomegaly, and ototoxicity are not typically associated with calcium disodium edetate therapy for lead poisoning.

2. Which finding indicates to the nurse that a patient's transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) placed 3 months ago has been effective?

• A. Increased serum albumin level
• B. Decreased indirect bilirubin level
• C. Improved alertness and orientation
• D. Fewer episodes of bleeding varices

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fewer episodes of bleeding varices.' A transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) is used to reduce pressure in the portal venous system, thus decreasing the risk of bleeding from esophageal varices. This outcome would indicate the effectiveness of the TIPS procedure. The other choices are incorrect because: Increased serum albumin level and decreased indirect bilirubin level are not direct indicators of TIPS effectiveness. Improved alertness and orientation could be influenced by various factors and may not directly correlate with the effectiveness of the TIPS procedure. Additionally, TIPS can actually increase the risk of hepatic encephalopathy, which contradicts the choice of improved alertness and orientation.

3. The nurse provides preoperative instruction for a patient scheduled for a left pneumonectomy for lung cancer. Which information should the nurse include about the patient's postoperative care?

• A. Positioning on the right side
• B. Bed rest for the first 24 hours
• C. Frequent use of an incentive spirometer
• D. Chest tube placement with continuous drainage

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a pneumonectomy, frequent deep breathing and coughing are essential to prevent atelectasis and promote gas exchange. Patients are typically positioned on the surgical side to aid in gas exchange. Early mobilization is crucial to reduce the risk of postoperative complications such as pneumonia and deep vein thrombosis. While chest tubes may or may not be placed in the surgical space, if used, they are clamped and only adjusted by the surgeon to manage serosanguineous fluid accumulation. Overfilling of the chest cavity can compromise remaining lung function and cardiovascular status. Chest x-rays are useful for monitoring fluid volume and space postoperatively. Therefore, the correct postoperative care instruction for the patient undergoing a left pneumonectomy is the frequent use of an incentive spirometer. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as positioning on the right side, bed rest for the first 24 hours, and continuous chest tube drainage are not standard postoperative care practices for patients undergoing pneumonectomy.

4. Following a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) in their 6-year-old child, the parent's remark: "We just don't know how he caught the disease!"? The nurse's response is based on an understanding that:

• A. AGN is a streptococcal infection that involves the kidney tubules.
• B. The disease is easily transmissible in schools and camps.
• C. The illness is usually associated with chronic respiratory infections.
• D. It is not "caught"? but is a response to a previous B-hemolytic strep infection.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) is not 'caught' but is a response to a previous B-hemolytic strep infection. AGN is generally accepted as an immune-complex disease triggered by an antecedent streptococcal infection occurring 4 to 6 weeks prior. It is considered a noninfectious renal disease. Choice A is incorrect because AGN is not a streptococcal infection that involves the kidney tubules but rather a noninfectious renal disease. Choice B is incorrect as AGN is not easily transmissible in schools and camps but is a result of a previous streptococcal infection. Choice C is incorrect as AGN is not usually associated with chronic respiratory infections, but with a previous streptococcal infection.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with a serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L. The client is placed on a cardiac monitor and receives 40 mEq potassium chloride in 1000 ml of 5% dextrose in water IV. Which of the following EKG patterns indicates to the nurse that the infusions should be discontinued?

• A. Narrowed QRS complex
• B. Shortened "PR"? interval
• C. Tall peaked "T"? waves
• D. Prominent "U"? waves

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A tall peaked T wave is a characteristic EKG pattern associated with hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia refers to high levels of potassium in the blood, which can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and other serious complications. Tall peaked T waves are a red flag for potential cardiac issues and can indicate the need to discontinue potassium infusions. The other choices, such as narrowed QRS complex, shortened "PR"? interval, and prominent "U"? waves, are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. Therefore, recognizing tall peaked T waves is crucial for the nurse to take prompt action in managing the client's condition.

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