NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram
1. The nurse is caring for a 2-year-old who is being treated with chelation therapy, calcium disodium edetate, for lead poisoning. The nurse should be alert for which of the following side effects?
- A. Neurotoxicity
- B. Hepatomegaly
- C. Nephrotoxicity
- D. Ototoxicity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is nephrotoxicity. Calcium disodium edetate, used in chelation therapy for lead poisoning, can lead to kidney toxicity. This is an important side effect to monitor in patients undergoing this treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Neurotoxicity, hepatomegaly, and ototoxicity are not typically associated with calcium disodium edetate therapy for lead poisoning.
2. A patient with a possible pulmonary embolism complains of chest pain and difficulty breathing. The nurse finds a heart rate of 142 beats/minute, blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, and respirations of 42 breaths/minute. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer anticoagulant drug therapy.
- B. Notify the patient's healthcare provider.
- C. Prepare the patient for a spiral computed tomography (CT).
- D. Elevate the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler's position.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The patient presents with symptoms indicative of a pulmonary embolism (PE), such as chest pain, difficulty breathing, tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea. Elevating the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler's position is the priority to improve ventilation and gas exchange. This intervention should be initiated promptly to optimize oxygenation. Subsequent actions, such as notifying the healthcare provider, preparing for a spiral CT scan, and administering anticoagulant therapy, can follow after the patient's position is adjusted. The spiral CT scan is typically used to confirm the diagnosis of PE, and anticoagulant therapy is initiated upon confirmation of the diagnosis by the healthcare provider. Therefore, the immediate focus is on improving the patient's respiratory status by elevating the head of the bed.
3. A nurse admits a 3-week-old infant to the special care nursery with a diagnosis of bronchopulmonary dysplasia. As the nurse reviews the birth history, which data would be most consistent with this diagnosis?
- A. Gestational age assessment suggested growth retardation
- B. Meconium was cleared from the airway at delivery
- C. Phototherapy was used to treat Rh incompatibility
- D. The infant received mechanical ventilation for 2 weeks
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'The infant received mechanical ventilation for 2 weeks.' Bronchopulmonary dysplasia is a condition primarily caused by therapies like positive-pressure ventilation used in the treatment of lung disease. This leads to lung damage and subsequent respiratory problems. Choices A, B, and C are not consistent with the diagnosis of bronchopulmonary dysplasia. Gestational age assessment suggesting growth retardation is more indicative of intrauterine growth restriction, clearing meconium from the airway at delivery is related to potential respiratory issues at birth, and phototherapy for Rh incompatibility is unrelated to bronchopulmonary dysplasia.
4. A client is seen for testing to rule out Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever. Which of the following signs or symptoms is associated with this condition?
- A. Fever and rash
- B. Circumoral cyanosis
- C. Elevated glucose levels
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fever and rash.' Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSP) is caused by the R. rickettsii pathogen, which damages blood vessels. Patients with RMSP typically present with fever, edema, and a rash that initially appears on the hands and feet before spreading across the body. The disease manifests following a tick bite. Choice A is correct as fever and rash are key indicators of RMSP. Circumoral cyanosis (choice B) is not typically associated with RMSP; it refers to a bluish discoloration around the mouth and is more indicative of oxygen deprivation. Elevated glucose levels (choice C) are not specific signs of RMSP. Therefore, choice D, 'All of the above,' is incorrect since only choice A, 'Fever and rash,' is associated with Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever.
5. A client complained of nausea, a metallic taste in her mouth, and fine hand tremors 2 hours after her first dose of lithium carbonate (Lithane). What is the nurse's best explanation of these findings?
- A. These side effects are common and should subside in a few days.
- B. The client is probably having an allergic reaction and should discontinue the drug.
- C. Taking the lithium on an empty stomach should decrease these symptoms.
- D. Decreasing dietary intake of sodium and fluids should minimize the side effects.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is, 'These side effects are common and should subside in a few days.' Nausea, metallic taste, and fine hand tremors are common side effects of lithium carbonate (Lithane) and typically diminish within a few days as the body adjusts to the medication. Option B is incorrect because these symptoms are not indicative of an allergic reaction. Option C is incorrect as taking lithium on an empty stomach does not directly address or decrease these specific side effects. Option D is also incorrect as reducing sodium and fluid intake is not the recommended approach to managing these particular side effects of lithium.
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