Nursing Elites

1. A client with schizophrenia is receiving Haloperidol (Haldol) 5 mg t.i.d.. The client's family is alarmed and calls the clinic when 'his eyes rolled upward.' The nurse recognizes this as what type of side effect?

• A. Oculogyric crisis
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Nystagmus
• D. Dysphagia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Oculogyric crisis is a known side effect of antipsychotic medications like Haloperidol (Haldol) and is characterized by involuntary upward deviation of the eyes. This condition can be distressing to both the client and their family. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different side effect characterized by repetitive, involuntary movements, especially of the face and tongue, which can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Nystagmus (Choice C) is an involuntary eye movement that is rhythmic and can occur for various reasons but is not specific to Haloperidol use. Dysphagia (Choice D) refers to difficulty swallowing and is not typically associated with the use of Haloperidol.

2. A child is suspected of suffering from intussusception. The nurse should be alert to which clinical manifestation of this condition?

• A. Tender, distended abdomen
• B. Presence of fecal incontinence
• C. Incomplete development of the anus
• D. Infrequent and difficult passage of dry stools

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Intussusception is an invagination of a section of the intestine into the distal bowel, and it is the most common cause of bowel obstruction in children aged 3 months to 6 years. A tender, distended abdomen is a typical clinical manifestation of intussusception. The presence of fecal incontinence is not a characteristic presentation of intussusception; it describes encopresis, which generally affects preschool and school-aged children but is not specific to intussusception. Incomplete development of the anus describes imperforate anus, a disorder diagnosed in the neonatal period, not intussusception. The infrequent and difficult passage of dry stools is characteristic of constipation, a common issue in children that can occur at any age, although it often peaks at 2 to 3 years old.

3. Which of these individuals would the nurse suspect as having the greatest risk of contracting Hepatitis B?

• A. A sexually active 45-year-old man who has Type 1 Diabetes
• B. A 75-year-old woman who lives in a crowded nursing home
• C. A child who lives in a country with poor sanitation and hygiene standards
• D. A sexually active 23-year-old man who works in a hospital

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is a sexually active 23-year-old man who works in a hospital. This individual is at the highest risk of contracting Hepatitis B due to exposure in a healthcare setting where potential bloodborne pathogens are present. Being sexually active also increases the risk of transmission through sexual contact. Choice A, a 45-year-old man with Type 1 Diabetes, is not directly associated with an increased risk of Hepatitis B. Choice B, a 75-year-old woman living in a crowded nursing home, is at risk for other infections due to the living environment but not specifically for Hepatitis B. Choice C, a child in a country with poor sanitation, is more at risk for water or foodborne illnesses rather than Hepatitis B transmission.

4. When is cleft palate repair usually performed in children?

• A. A cleft palate cannot be repaired in children.
• B. Repair is usually performed by age 8 weeks.
• C. Repair is usually performed by 2 months of age.
• D. Repair is usually performed between 6 months and 2 years.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cleft palate repair timing is individualized based on the severity of the deformity and the child's size. Typically, cleft palate repair is performed between 6 months and 2 years of age. This age range allows for optimal outcomes and is often done before 12 months to promote normal speech development. Early closure of the cleft palate helps to facilitate speech development. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because a cleft palate can be repaired in children, and repair is usually performed between 6 months and 2 years of age, not at 8 weeks or 2 months.

5. The nurse caring for Mrs. J is prepared to suction her endotracheal tube. Which of the following interventions will reduce hypoxia during this procedure?

• A. Hyperoxygenate Mrs. J for up to 60 seconds prior to starting
• B. Administer 15 mL of sterile fluid into the tube prior to suctioning
• C. Suction for no longer than 30 seconds at a time
• D. Wait 30 seconds after suctioning before attempting again

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before suctioning a client's endotracheal tube, it is essential to hyperoxygenate the client for approximately 30 to 60 seconds. Hyperoxygenation helps increase oxygen delivery to the tissues, reducing the risk of hypoxia during and after the suctioning procedure. Administering fluid into the tube before suctioning (Choice B) is unnecessary and can lead to complications. Suctioning for no longer than 30 seconds at a time (Choice C) is a general guideline but does not specifically address reducing hypoxia. Waiting 30 seconds after suctioning before attempting again (Choice D) may lead to inadequate oxygenation and potential hypoxia, making it less effective in preventing this complication compared to hyperoxygenation prior to suctioning.

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