Nursing Elites

1. A patient with severe Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease is receiving discharge teaching. Which of these statements by the patient indicates a need for more teaching?

• A. ''I'm going to limit my meals to 2-3 per day to reduce acid secretion.''
• B. ''I'm going to make sure to remain upright after meals and elevate my head when I sleep.''
• C. ''I won't be drinking tea or coffee or eating chocolate anymore.''
• D. ''I'm going to start trying to lose some weight.''

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is ''I'm going to limit my meals to 2-3 per day to reduce acid secretion.'' This statement indicates a need for more teaching because large meals increase the volume and pressure in the stomach, delaying gastric emptying, and worsening symptoms of Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD). The recommended approach is to eat smaller, more frequent meals (4-6 small meals a day) to reduce acid reflux. Choices B, C, and D demonstrate good understanding of GERD management by highlighting the importance of staying upright after meals, avoiding trigger foods like tea, coffee, and chocolate, and addressing weight management, which are all appropriate strategies to manage GERD symptoms.

2. The nurse is creating a plan of care for a 10-year-old child diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Promoting bed rest
• B. Restricting oral fluids
• C. Allowing the child to play
• D. Encouraging visits from friends

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the acute phase of glomerulonephritis, promoting bed rest is a priority to reduce stress on the kidneys and promote recovery. As the condition improves, activity can be gradually increased. Restricting oral fluids is not recommended as maintaining adequate hydration is crucial. Allowing the child to play quietly can be beneficial but is not the priority over rest during the acute phase. Encouraging visits from friends may disrupt the rest needed for recovery, so visitors should be limited.

3. A 15-year-old female who ingested 15 tablets of maximum strength acetaminophen 45 minutes ago is rushed to the emergency department. Which of these orders should the nurse do first?

• A. Gastric lavage
• B. Administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) orally
• C. Start an IV Dextrose 5% with 0.33% normal saline to keep the vein open
• D. Have the patient drink activated charcoal mixed with water

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acetaminophen overdose is extremely toxic to the liver causing hepatotoxicity. Early symptoms of hepatic damage include nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. If not treated immediately, hepatic necrosis occurs and may lead to death. Removing as much of the drug as possible is the first step in treatment for acetaminophen overdose, this is best done through gastric lavage. Gastric lavage (irrigation) and aspiration consist of flushing the stomach with fluids and then aspirating the fluid back out. This procedure is done in life-threatening cases such as acetaminophen toxicity and only if less than one (1) hour has occurred after ingestion.

4. Which intervention will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient diagnosed with a lung abscess?

• A. Teach the patient to avoid using over-the-counter expectorants.
• B. Assist the patient with chest physiotherapy and postural drainage.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately regarding any bloody or foul-smelling sputum.
• D. Teach about the necessity of prolonged antibiotic therapy after discharge from the hospital.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a patient diagnosed with a lung abscess, the priority intervention is to educate them about the importance of prolonged antibiotic therapy post-hospital discharge. Long-term antibiotic treatment is crucial for eradicating the infecting organisms in a lung abscess. Chest physiotherapy and postural drainage are not recommended for lung abscess as they can potentially spread the infection. While foul-smelling and bloody sputum are common in lung abscess, immediate notification to the healthcare provider is essential. Avoiding the use of over-the-counter expectorants is not necessary, as expectorants can be used to facilitate coughing and clearing of secretions in this condition.

5. The parents of a 2-year-old child who had an orchiopexy to correct cryptorchidism are provided with discharge instructions by the nurse. Which statement by the parents indicates the need for further instruction?

• A. I'll check his temperature.
• B. I'll give him medication so he'll be comfortable.
• C. I'll check his voiding to be sure there's no problem.
• D. I'll let him decide when to return to his play activities.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cryptorchidism is a condition where one or both testes fail to descend into the scrotal sac. Orchiopexy, a surgical correction, may be required. After surgery, it is crucial to restrict vigorous activities for 2 weeks to promote healing and prevent injury. Allowing the child to decide when to return to play activities may lead to delayed healing and increased risk of injury, as 2-year-olds typically want to be active. Checking the child's temperature, administering analgesics as needed, and monitoring urine output are important postoperative care measures to ensure recovery and detect complications early. Therefore, the statement indicating the need for further instruction is the one related to letting the child decide when to resume play activities.

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