Nursing Elites

1. A client presents with symptoms of a sore throat, swollen lymph nodes in the neck, fever, chills, and extreme fatigue. Based on these symptoms, which of the following illnesses could the nurse consider for this client?

• A. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
• B. Hepatitis B
• C. Infectious mononucleosis
• D. Norovirus infection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Infectious mononucleosis is a viral disease caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. The symptoms of sore throat, fever, chills, swollen lymph nodes, and extreme fatigue are characteristic of infectious mononucleosis. The diagnosis is confirmed through the client's history and blood tests for the Epstein-Barr virus. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) presents with localized skin infections, not the systemic symptoms described. Hepatitis B typically presents with jaundice, abdominal pain, and liver inflammation, not the symptoms described. Norovirus infection commonly causes gastrointestinal symptoms like vomiting and diarrhea, not the symptoms presented by the client.

2. Which of the following factors may alter the level of consciousness in a patient?

• A. Alcohol
• B. Electrolytes
• C. Infection
• D. All of the above may cause altered level of consciousness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Various factors can lead to altered levels of consciousness in a patient. Alcohol consumption can depress the central nervous system and cause changes in consciousness. Electrolyte imbalances, such as hyponatremia or hypernatremia, can disrupt brain function and affect consciousness. Infections, especially those affecting the brain like encephalitis, can also lead to alterations in consciousness. Therefore, all of the choices provided - Alcohol, Electrolytes, and Infection - can potentially cause changes in the level of consciousness. Remember the acronym AEIOU-TIPPS to recall common causes of decreased level of consciousness, including Alcohol, Electrolytes, and Infection, among others.

3. A client is in her third month of her first pregnancy. During the interview, she tells the nurse that she has several sex partners and is unsure of the identity of the baby's father. Which of the following nursing interventions is a priority?

• A. Counsel the woman to consent to HIV screening.
• B. Perform tests for sexually transmitted diseases.
• C. Discuss her high risk for cervical cancer.
• D. Refer the client to a family planning clinic.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's disclosure of having multiple sex partners and uncertainty about the baby's father indicates a potential high risk for HIV. Therefore, the priority nursing intervention is to counsel the woman to consent to HIV screening. Early detection of HIV is crucial for initiating timely treatment and improving outcomes. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority in this situation as HIV screening takes precedence over testing for other sexually transmitted diseases, discussing cervical cancer risk, or referring to a family planning clinic.

4. The nurse is working in a support group for clients with HIV. Which point is most important for the nurse to stress?

• A. They must inform household members of their condition.
• B. They must take their medications exactly as prescribed.
• C. They must abstain from substance use.
• D. They must avoid large crowds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that clients with HIV must take their medications exactly as prescribed. Antiretrovirals need to be taken as directed to prevent the development of drug-resistant strains and maintain treatment effectiveness. Missing doses can compromise the effectiveness of future treatments. Choice A, informing household members, is important for social support but not the most critical aspect of managing the condition. Choice C, abstaining from substance use, is important but not as crucial as medication adherence. Choice D, avoiding large crowds, is not directly related to HIV management as long as the individual's immune system is not significantly compromised.

5. A patient admitted to the hospital with myocardial infarction develops severe pulmonary edema. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect the patient to exhibit?

• A. Slow, deep respirations
• B. Stridor
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Air hunger

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a patient with pulmonary edema following a myocardial infarction, the nurse should expect symptoms such as air hunger, anxiety, and agitation. Air hunger refers to the feeling of needing to breathe more deeply or more often. Other symptoms of pulmonary edema can include coughing up blood or bloody froth, orthopnea (difficulty breathing when lying down), and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (sudden awakening with shortness of breath). Slow, deep respirations (Choice A) are not typical in pulmonary edema; these patients often exhibit rapid, shallow breathing due to the difficulty in oxygen exchange. Stridor (Choice B) is a high-pitched breathing sound often associated with upper airway obstruction, not typically seen in pulmonary edema. Bradycardia (Choice C), a slow heart rate, is not a characteristic symptom of pulmonary edema, which is more likely to be associated with tachycardia due to the body's compensatory response to hypoxia and increased workload on the heart.

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