NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Prioritization Questions
1. A client presents with symptoms of a sore throat, swollen lymph nodes in the neck, fever, chills, and extreme fatigue. Based on these symptoms, which of the following illnesses could the nurse consider for this client?
- A. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
- B. Hepatitis B
- C. Infectious mononucleosis
- D. Norovirus infection
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Infectious mononucleosis is a viral disease caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. The symptoms of sore throat, fever, chills, swollen lymph nodes, and extreme fatigue are characteristic of infectious mononucleosis. The diagnosis is confirmed through the client's history and blood tests for the Epstein-Barr virus. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) presents with localized skin infections, not the systemic symptoms described. Hepatitis B typically presents with jaundice, abdominal pain, and liver inflammation, not the symptoms described. Norovirus infection commonly causes gastrointestinal symptoms like vomiting and diarrhea, not the symptoms presented by the client.
2. A patient in metabolic alkalosis is admitted to the emergency department, and pulse oximetry indicates that the O2 saturation is 94%. Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Administer bicarbonate.
- B. Complete a head-to-toe assessment.
- C. Place the patient on high-flow oxygen.
- D. Obtain repeat arterial blood gases (ABGs).
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a patient with metabolic alkalosis and an O2 saturation of 94%, placing the patient on high-flow oxygen is the correct action. Even though the O2 saturation seems adequate, metabolic alkalosis causes a left shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve, reducing oxygen delivery to tissues. Therefore, providing high-flow oxygen can help compensate for this. Administering bicarbonate would exacerbate the alkalosis. While completing a head-to-toe assessment and obtaining repeat ABGs are important interventions, the priority in this scenario is to improve oxygen delivery by placing the patient on high-flow oxygen.
3. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to the mother of a child who had a cleft palate repair. Which statement should the nurse make to the mother?
- A. You should use an orthodontic nipple on the child's bottle.
- B. You need to use a plastic spoon to feed the child.
- C. You can allow the child to use a pacifier but only for 30 minutes at a time.
- D. You need to monitor the child's temperature for signs of infection using an oral thermometer.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After a cleft palate repair, it is crucial to use an orthodontic nipple on the child's bottle to feed them appropriately. The mother should be instructed to give the child baby food or baby food mixed with water. It is important to avoid introducing straws, pacifiers, spoons, or fingers into the child's mouth for 7 to 10 days post-surgery to prevent complications. The use of a pacifier should be avoided for at least 2 weeks following the surgical repair to promote proper healing. Additionally, taking oral temperatures should be avoided, and alternative temperature monitoring methods should be utilized to reduce the risk of infection. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect because they could potentially lead to complications or hinder the child's recovery after cleft palate repair.
4. The parents of a newborn male with hypospadias want their child circumcised. The best response by the nurse is to inform them that
- A. Circumcision is delayed so the foreskin can be used for the surgical repair
- B. This procedure is contraindicated because of the permanent defect
- C. There is no medical indication for performing a circumcision on any child
- D. The procedure should be performed as soon as the infant is stable
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Circumcision is delayed so the foreskin can be used for the surgical repair. Even if mild hypospadias is suspected, circumcision is not done to save the foreskin for surgical repair if needed. Choice B is incorrect because circumcision is not contraindicated due to a permanent defect; it is delayed for potential surgical needs. Choice C is incorrect as there are situations where a circumcision may be indicated for medical or cultural reasons. Choice D is incorrect because circumcision for hypospadias-related repair is not done immediately but rather delayed to preserve the foreskin for potential reconstructive surgery.
5. While receiving normal saline infusions to treat a GI bleed, the nurse notes that the patient's lower legs have become edematous and auscultates crackles in the lungs. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Stop the saline infusion immediately
- B. Notify the physician
- C. Elevate the patient's legs
- D. Continue the infusion, as these findings are normal
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to stop the saline infusion immediately. The patient is showing signs of fluid volume overload due to rapid fluid replacement, indicated by lower leg edema and lung crackles. Continuing the infusion could worsen the overload and potentially lead to complications. Notifying the physician is important but should come after stopping the infusion to address the immediate issue. Elevating the patient's legs may help with edema but is not the priority in this situation. Continuing the infusion when the patient is already showing signs of fluid overload is contraindicated and can be harmful.
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