Nursing Elites

1. A mother has recently been informed that her child has Down syndrome. You will be assigned to care for the child at shift change. Which of the following characteristics is not associated with Down syndrome?

• A. Simian crease
• B. Brachycephaly
• C. Oily skin
• D. Hypotonicity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Individuals with Down syndrome commonly have certain physical characteristics, such as a simian crease (single transverse palmar crease), brachycephaly (shortened front-to-back skull dimension), and hypotonicity (low muscle tone). Oily skin is not a characteristic associated with Down syndrome; instead, individuals with Down syndrome often have dry skin. Therefore, oily skin is the correct answer in this context.

2. A patient with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH) is receiving nifedipine (Procardia). Which assessment would best indicate to the nurse that the patient's condition is improving?

• A. Blood pressure (BP) is less than 140/90 mm Hg.
• B. Patient reports decreased exertional dyspnea
• C. Heart rate is between 60 and 100 beats/minute
• D. Patient's chest x-ray indicates clear lung fields

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is for the patient to report decreased exertional dyspnea. In idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH), exertional dyspnea is a significant symptom indicating disease severity. Improvement in this symptom suggests that the medication, nifedipine, is effective in managing the condition. While nifedipine can affect blood pressure (choice A) and heart rate (choice C), these parameters are not specific indicators for monitoring IPAH improvement. Choice D, clear lung fields on the chest x-ray, does not directly correlate with the effectiveness of therapy for IPAH. Therefore, the most relevant assessment to monitor improvement in a patient with IPAH receiving nifedipine is a decrease in exertional dyspnea.

3. A patient's chart indicates a history of meningitis. Which of the following would you NOT expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Vomiting
• C. Fever
• D. Poor tolerance of light

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Increased appetite.' In cases of acute meningitis, loss of appetite would be expected rather than an increase. Meningitis is often caused by an infectious agent that colonizes or infects various sites in the body, leading to systemic symptoms. Common symptoms of acute meningitis include fever, vomiting, and poor tolerance of light due to meningeal irritation. The inflammatory response in the meninges can result in symptoms like photophobia. Increased appetite is not typically associated with acute meningitis. Therefore, choice A is the least likely symptom to be observed in a patient with acute meningitis. Choices B, C, and D are symptoms commonly seen in acute meningitis due to the inflammatory process affecting the central nervous system and meninges.

4. The home health nurse visits a male client to provide wound care and finds the client lethargic and confused. His wife states he fell down the stairs two (2) hours ago. The nurse should

• A. Place a call to the client's healthcare provider for instructions
• B. Send him to the emergency room for evaluation
• C. Reassure the client's wife that the symptoms are transient
• D. Instruct the client's wife to call the doctor if his symptoms become worse

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is presenting with concerning symptoms of lethargy and confusion after a fall. These symptoms could indicate a serious underlying issue, such as a head injury or internal bleeding. The nurse's priority is to ensure the client receives immediate evaluation and treatment to prevent any further harm. Option B is the correct choice as it emphasizes the urgency of the situation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the critical nature of the client's condition. Contacting the healthcare provider, reassuring the wife, or waiting for symptoms to worsen could delay necessary medical intervention.

5. A 23-year-old woman is admitted to the infusion clinic after a Multiple Sclerosis exacerbation. The physician orders methylprednisolone infusions (Solu-Medrol). The nurse would expect which of the following outcomes after administration of this medication?

• A. A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements
• B. A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis-related plaques
• C. A decrease in the length of the exacerbation
• D. A stabilization of mood and sleep

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methylprednisolone infusion is the first-line treatment during an acute exacerbation of Multiple Sclerosis. It is used to decrease the length and severity of a relapse by reducing inflammation in the central nervous system. Choice A, 'A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements,' is incorrect because methylprednisolone primarily targets inflammation and does not directly address muscle spasticity. Choice B, 'A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis-related plaques,' is incorrect as methylprednisolone is not used to slow the progression of the disease but rather to manage acute exacerbations. Choice D, 'A stabilization of mood and sleep,' is not an expected outcome of methylprednisolone administration for Multiple Sclerosis exacerbation as it primarily targets the inflammatory process associated with the relapse.

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