NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. A client is admitted for a head injury. His body is lying in an abnormal position and the physician states he is exhibiting decorticate posturing. Based on this assessment, the nurse can expect to find the client with:
- A. The legs extended and rotated internally; the elbow, wrists, and fingers flexed
- B. The legs pulled toward the chest; the head bent back at a 30-degree angle
- C. The back arched; the arms and legs extended and rigid
- D. The legs extended and rotated externally; the head turned to the right or the left
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Decorticate posturing is indicative of an injury to the corticospinal tract, resulting in abnormal posturing. It may occur spontaneously or in response to stimulation. This posture involves the legs being extended and rotated internally, while the elbows, wrists, and fingers are flexed inward. Choice A is correct because it accurately describes the expected positioning associated with decorticate posturing. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B describes a different type of posturing known as opisthotonos. Choice C describes an exaggerated arching of the back, which is not characteristic of decorticate posturing. Choice D describes a different type of posturing with external rotation of the legs and head turning to the side, not consistent with decorticate posturing.
2. The parents of a newborn male with hypospadias want their child circumcised. The best response by the nurse is to inform them that
- A. Circumcision is delayed so the foreskin can be used for the surgical repair
- B. This procedure is contraindicated because of the permanent defect
- C. There is no medical indication for performing a circumcision on any child
- D. The procedure should be performed as soon as the infant is stable
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Circumcision is delayed so the foreskin can be used for the surgical repair. Even if mild hypospadias is suspected, circumcision is not done to save the foreskin for surgical repair if needed. Choice B is incorrect because circumcision is not contraindicated due to a permanent defect; it is delayed for potential surgical needs. Choice C is incorrect as there are situations where a circumcision may be indicated for medical or cultural reasons. Choice D is incorrect because circumcision for hypospadias-related repair is not done immediately but rather delayed to preserve the foreskin for potential reconstructive surgery.
3. A nurse is caring for a patient admitted to the emergency room for an ischemic stroke with marked functional deficits. The physician is considering the use of fibrinolytic therapy with TPA (tissue plasminogen activator). Which history-gathering question would not be important for the nurse to ask?
- A. What time did you first notice symptoms consistently appearing?
- B. Have you been taking any blood thinners such as heparin, lovenox, or warfarin?
- C. Have you had another stroke or head trauma in the previous 3 months?
- D. Have you had any blood transfusions within the previous year?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Have you had any blood transfusions within the previous year?' This question is not relevant in the context of considering fibrinolytic therapy with TPA for an ischemic stroke. Blood transfusions within the previous year do not directly impact the decision to use TPA in the treatment of an acute ischemic stroke. The focus should be on factors such as the time of symptom onset, current medications like blood thinners, and recent history of strokes or head trauma, as these are more directly related to the decision-making process for administering TPA in this emergency situation.
4. A 34-year-old female has recently been diagnosed with an autoimmune disease. She has also recently discovered that she is pregnant. Which of the following is the only immunoglobulin that will provide protection to the fetus in the womb?
- A. IgA
- B. IgD
- C. IgE
- D. IgG
Correct answer: D
Rationale: IgG is the only immunoglobulin that can cross the placental barrier, providing passive immunity to the fetus. About 70-80% of the immunoglobulins in the blood are IgG. Specific IgG antibodies are generated after an initial exposure to an antigen, offering long-term protection against microorganisms. IgG antibodies are critical for protecting the fetus as they can be rapidly reproduced upon re-exposure to the same antigen. IgA is primarily found in mucosal areas, IgD is involved in antigen recognition, and IgE is associated with allergic reactions, but they do not provide the same level of protection to the fetus as IgG.
5. The nurse is caring for a client in the late stages of Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (A.L.S.). Which finding would the nurse expect?
- A. Confusion
- B. Loss of half of the visual field
- C. Shallow respirations
- D. Tonic-clonic seizures
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the late stages of Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (A.L.S.), respiratory muscles are affected, leading to shallow respirations. Confusion is not typically associated with A.L.S. Loss of half of the visual field suggests a neurological issue unrelated to A.L.S., while tonic-clonic seizures are not commonly seen in A.L.S. patients. Shallow respirations are a hallmark sign of respiratory muscle weakness in A.L.S. due to the degeneration of motor neurons.
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