Nursing Elites

1. A patient experiences a chest wall contusion as a result of being struck in the chest with a baseball bat. The emergency department nurse would be most concerned if which finding is observed during the initial assessment?

• A. Paradoxic chest movement
• B. Complaint of chest wall pain
• C. Heart rate of 110 beats/minute
• D. Large bruised area on the chest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Paradoxic chest movement is the most concerning finding as it indicates a potential flail chest, which can lead to severe compromise in gas exchange and rapid hypoxemia. This condition requires immediate attention to prevent respiratory distress. Complaint of chest wall pain, a slightly elevated heart rate, and a large bruised area on the chest are important assessment findings but may not immediately threaten gas exchange or respiratory function. Therefore, identifying paradoxic chest movement is critical for prompt intervention and management.

2. The healthcare provider is managing a 20 lbs (9 kg) 6-month-old with a 3-day history of diarrhea, occasional vomiting, and fever. Peripheral intravenous therapy has been initiated, with 5% dextrose in 0.33% normal saline with 20 mEq of potassium per liter infusing at 35 ml/hr. Which finding should be immediately reported to the healthcare provider?

• A. 3 episodes of vomiting in 1 hour.
• B. Periodic crying and irritability.
• C. Vigorous sucking on a pacifier.
• D. No measurable voiding in 4 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The critical finding that should be reported immediately to the healthcare provider is 'No measurable voiding in 4 hours.' This finding raises concerns about possible hyperkalemia, which can result from continued potassium administration and a decrease in urinary output. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious complications, including cardiac arrhythmias. The management of acute hyperkalemia involves interventions such as administering calcium to protect the heart, shifting potassium into cells, and enhancing potassium elimination from the body. The other choices do not indicate an urgent issue that requires immediate attention. Three episodes of vomiting in 1 hour can be concerning but may not be as immediately critical as the risk of hyperkalemia. Periodic crying and irritability are common in infants and may not indicate a severe complication. Vigorous sucking on a pacifier is a normal behavior in infants and does not signal a medical emergency.

3. The healthcare provider is reviewing the lab results of a patient who has presented in the Emergency Room. The lab results show that the troponin T value is at 5.3 ng/mL. Which of these interventions, if not already completed, would take priority over the others?

• A. Place the patient in a 90-degree position
• B. Assess whether the patient is taking diuretics
• C. Obtain and attach defibrillator leads
• D. Assess the patient's last ejection fraction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the elevated Troponin T level indicates cardiac damage, possibly due to a myocardial infarction. A Troponin T value of 5.3 ng/mL is significantly elevated (normal levels are below 0.2 ng/mL), suggesting acute cardiac injury. Given the setting of an Emergency Room and the critical nature of the situation, the priority intervention should be to obtain and attach defibrillator leads. Elevated Troponin T levels can indicate a higher risk of arrhythmias, including ventricular fibrillation, which can lead to sudden cardiac arrest. Defibrillator leads are essential for monitoring the patient's cardiac rhythm and readiness for immediate defibrillation if necessary. Placing the patient in a 90-degree position (Choice A) or assessing diuretic use (Choice B) are not immediate priorities in this critical situation. Additionally, assessing the patient's last ejection fraction (Choice D) is important but not as urgent as preparing for potential life-threatening arrhythmias requiring defibrillation.

4. Which of the following measures would be appropriate for a nurse to teach the parent of a nine-month-old infant about diaper dermatitis?

• A. Use only cloth diapers that are rinsed in bleach
• B. Do not use occlusive ointments on the rash
• C. Use commercial baby wipes with each diaper change
• D. Discontinue a new food that was added to the infant's diet just prior to the rash

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diaper dermatitis can be caused by various factors, one of which includes introducing new foods to the infant's diet. Discontinuing the new food that was added just before the rash can help identify and eliminate the potential cause. Options A and C are not directly related to addressing the cause of diaper dermatitis. While using cloth diapers rinsed in bleach may be a preventive measure for diaper dermatitis, it is not addressing a specific cause. Option B, advising against using occlusive ointments on the rash, may actually be beneficial in managing diaper dermatitis, but it does not address the cause of the condition.

5. The patient with chronic pancreatitis will be taught to take the prescribed pancrelipase (Viokase)

• A. at bedtime.
• B. in the morning.
• C. with each meal.
• D. for abdominal pain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to take pancrelipase (Viokase) with each meal. Pancrelipase is a pancreatic enzyme replacement medication that helps with the digestion of nutrients. Patients with chronic pancreatitis often have difficulty digesting food properly due to insufficient pancreatic enzyme production. Taking pancrelipase with each meal assists in the breakdown of fats, proteins, and carbohydrates consumed during the meal. Option A ('at bedtime') is incorrect because enzymes should be taken with meals to aid in digestion. Option B ('in the morning') is not ideal as it does not ensure optimal enzyme activity during meals. Option D ('for abdominal pain') is incorrect as pancrelipase is not meant to be taken solely for pain relief but rather to aid in digestion.

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