NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. A patient is being visited at home by a healthcare professional. The patient has been taking Naproxen for back pain. Which statement made by the patient most indicates that the healthcare professional needs to contact the physician?
- A. I get an upset stomach if I don't take Naproxen with my meals.
- B. My back pain right now is about a 3/10.
- C. I get occasional headaches since taking Naproxen
- D. I have ringing in my ears.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'I have ringing in my ears.' Ringing in the ears is a severe adverse effect of Naproxen, indicating potential toxicity. This symptom warrants immediate medical attention. Choices A, B, and C are less concerning and do not directly indicate a severe adverse effect or toxicity related to Naproxen. Upset stomach, mild back pain, and occasional headaches are common side effects that may not require immediate physician contact.
2. During an assessment of a child admitted to the hospital with a probable diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome, what assessment findings should the nurse expect to observe? Select one that applies.
- A. Proteinuria
- B. Weight gain
- C. Decreased serum lipids
- D. Hematuria
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome, the hallmark finding is massive proteinuria due to increased glomerular permeability. This leads to hypoalbuminemia, resulting in generalized edema. Weight gain, not weight loss, is typically seen due to fluid retention. Serum lipids are elevated, not decreased, in nephrotic syndrome. Hematuria, the presence of blood in the urine, is not a typical finding in nephrotic syndrome.
3. The nurse is caring for a 13-year-old following spinal fusion for scoliosis. Which of the following interventions is appropriate in the immediate post-operative period?
- A. Raise the head of the bed at least 30 degrees
- B. Encourage ambulation within 24 hours
- C. Maintain in a flat position, logrolling as needed
- D. Encourage leg contraction and relaxation after 48 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the immediate post-operative period following spinal fusion for scoliosis in a 13-year-old, it is important to maintain the patient in a flat position and perform logrolling as needed. This helps prevent injury to the surgical site and ensures proper spinal alignment. Raising the head of the bed at least 30 degrees is contraindicated as it can put strain on the surgical site. Encouraging ambulation within 24 hours may be appropriate in the recovery process but not in the immediate post-operative period. Encouraging leg contraction and relaxation after 48 hours may also be part of the rehabilitation process but is not a priority in the immediate post-operative period.
4. Which of the following statements made by a client during an individual therapy session would the nurse most identify as reflecting schizoaffective disorder?
- A. ''I just want to stab myself with this pen.''
- B. ''What's the point in life anyways?''
- C. ''My thoughts are racing because of the conspiracies against me.''
- D. ''I hear voices every day and sometimes see old friends that don't exist.''
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is, ''My thoughts are racing because of the conspiracies against me.'' Schizoaffective disorder combines the symptoms of bipolar disorder (mania and depression) with those of schizophrenia (delusions and disturbed thought processes). Racing thoughts are a characteristic symptom of a manic episode, while beliefs in conspiracies indicate paranoia, which are common in schizoaffective disorder. Choices A, B, and D do not specifically align with the symptoms of schizoaffective disorder. Choice A suggests self-harm, which may be seen in various mental health conditions; choice B reflects existential questioning or depression; and choice D describes hallucinations, which are more characteristic of schizophrenia rather than schizoaffective disorder.
5. Mr. L was working in his garage at home and had an accident with a power saw. He is brought into the emergency department by a neighbor with a traumatic hand amputation. What is the first action of the nurse?
- A. Place a tourniquet at the level of the elbow
- B. Apply direct pressure to the injury
- C. Administer a bolus of 0.9% Normal Saline
- D. Elevate the injured extremity on a pillow
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse in this scenario is to apply direct pressure to the injury. When a client presents with traumatic hand amputation causing excessive bleeding, the immediate goal is to control the bleeding. Applying direct pressure with a sterile dressing helps to stem the flow of blood and stabilize the patient. Placing a tourniquet at the level of the elbow should be avoided initially as it may lead to further complications such as tissue damage. Administering a bolus of 0.9% Normal Saline is not the priority in this situation where hemorrhage control is crucial. Elevating the injured extremity on a pillow does not address the primary concern of controlling the bleeding and stabilizing the patient.
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