Nursing Elites

1. A patient is being visited at home by a healthcare professional. The patient has been taking Naproxen for back pain. Which statement made by the patient most indicates that the healthcare professional needs to contact the physician?

• A. I get an upset stomach if I don't take Naproxen with my meals.
• B. My back pain right now is about a 3/10.
• C. I get occasional headaches since taking Naproxen
• D. I have ringing in my ears.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'I have ringing in my ears.' Ringing in the ears is a severe adverse effect of Naproxen, indicating potential toxicity. This symptom warrants immediate medical attention. Choices A, B, and C are less concerning and do not directly indicate a severe adverse effect or toxicity related to Naproxen. Upset stomach, mild back pain, and occasional headaches are common side effects that may not require immediate physician contact.

2. A client is brought into the emergency department after finishing a course of antibiotics for a urinary tract infection. The client is experiencing dyspnea, chest tightness, and agitation. Her blood pressure is 88/58, she has generalized hives over her body, and her lips and tongue are swollen. After the nurse calls for help, what is the next appropriate action?

• A. Start an IV and administer a 1-liter bolus of Lactated Ringer's solution
• B. Administer 0.3 mg of 1:1000 epinephrine IM
• C. Administer 15 mg diphenhydramine IM
• D. Monitor the client until help arrives

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client experiencing an anaphylactic reaction will likely present with rash or hives, swelling of the lips, face, or tongue, hypotension, or dyspnea. In this scenario, the client is showing signs of anaphylaxis with dyspnea, chest tightness, hives, hypotension, and swelling of the lips and tongue. The next appropriate action would be to administer 0.3 mg of 1:1000 epinephrine intramuscularly. Epinephrine helps relax the muscles of the airway, improve breathing, and increase oxygenation, which is crucial in managing anaphylaxis. Starting an IV and administering fluids can be important but not the immediate priority. Diphenhydramine may be used as an adjunct therapy but should not delay the administration of epinephrine in the acute phase of anaphylaxis. Monitoring the client without providing immediate treatment can lead to a worsening of the anaphylactic reaction, potentially resulting in a life-threatening situation.

3. A patient has a history of photosensitive reactions to medications. Which of the following drugs is associated with photosensitive reactions? Select one that doesn't apply

• A. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
• B. Sulfonamide
• C. Norfloxacin (Noroxin)
• D. Nitro-Dur patch

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nitro-Dur patch is not associated with photosensitive reactions. It is used to prevent chest pain or angina, and common side effects include headache, lightheadedness, nausea, and flushing. Choices A, B, and C are known to cause photosensitive reactions. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro), Sulfonamides, and Norfloxacin (Noroxin) are drugs that are commonly associated with photosensitivity reactions. Patients taking these medications should be advised to avoid direct sunlight and use sun protection to prevent skin reactions.

4. During the admission assessment of a client with chronic bilateral glaucoma, which statement by the client would the nurse anticipate due to this condition?

• A. "I have constant blurred vision."?
• B. "I can't see on my left side."?
• C. "I have to turn my head to see my room."?
• D. "I have specks floating in my eyes."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In chronic bilateral glaucoma, peripheral visual field loss occurs due to elevated intraocular pressure, leading to the need to turn the head to compensate for the visual field deficit. This symptom is characteristic of advanced glaucoma. Choice A is incorrect as constant blurred vision is a common symptom but not specific to peripheral vision loss in glaucoma. Choice B is incorrect because specific visual field deficits are more common than complete loss on one side. Choice D is incorrect as seeing floaters (specks floating in the eyes) is associated with other eye conditions like posterior vitreous detachment, not glaucoma.

5. A patient is on bedrest 24 hours after a hip fracture. Which regular assessment or intervention is essential for detecting or preventing the complication of Fat Embolism Syndrome?

• A. Performing passive, light range-of-motion exercises on the hip as tolerated.
• B. Assess the patient's mental status for drowsiness or sleepiness.
• C. Assess the pedal pulse and capillary refill in the toes.
• D. Administer a stool softener as ordered.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In detecting or preventing Fat Embolism Syndrome (FES), assessing the patient's mental status for drowsiness or sleepiness is crucial. Decreased level of consciousness is an early sign of FES due to decreased oxygen levels. Performing passive, light range-of-motion exercises on the hip may not directly relate to FES. Assessing pedal pulse and capillary refill in the toes is essential for assessing circulation but not specific to detecting FES. Administering a stool softener, while important for preventing constipation in immobilized patients, is not directly related to detecting or preventing FES.

Similar Questions