after 2 months of tuberculosis tb treatment with isoniazid inh rifampin rifadin pyrazinamide pza and ethambutol a patient continues to have positive s
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Prioritization Questions

1. After 2 months of tuberculosis (TB) treatment with isoniazid (INH), rifampin (Rifadin), pyrazinamide (PZA), and ethambutol, a patient continues to have positive sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli (AFB). Which action should the nurse take next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The first action should be to determine whether the patient has been compliant with drug therapy because negative sputum smears would be expected if the TB bacillus is susceptible to the medications and if the medications have been taken correctly. Assessment is the first step in the nursing process. Depending on whether the patient has been compliant or not, different medications or directly observed therapy may be indicated. The other options are interventions based on assumptions until an assessment has been completed. Teaching about drug-resistant TB treatment (Choice A) is premature without knowing the current medication compliance status. Scheduling directly observed therapy (Choice C) assumes non-compliance without confirming it first. Discussing the need for an injectable antibiotic (Choice D) is premature and not necessarily indicated without assessing the current medication adherence.

2. A female patient with atrial fibrillation has the following lab results: Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl, a platelet count of 150,000, an INR of 2.5, and potassium of 2.7 mEq/L. Which result is critical and should be reported to the physician immediately?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The critical lab result that should be reported to the physician immediately in this case is the potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. A potassium imbalance, especially in a patient with a history of dysrhythmia like atrial fibrillation, can be life-threatening and lead to cardiac distress. Low potassium levels (hypokalemia) can predispose the patient to dangerous arrhythmias, including worsening atrial fibrillation. Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl, platelet count of 150,000, and an INR of 2.5 are within acceptable ranges and not as immediately concerning as a low potassium level in this clinical context.

3. A patient underwent fiberoptic colonoscopy 18 hours ago and presents to the emergency department with increasing abdominal pain, fever, and chills. Which of the following conditions poses the most immediate concern?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is bowel perforation. Bowel perforation is the most serious complication of fiberoptic colonoscopy, with signs such as progressive abdominal pain, fever, chills, and tachycardia indicating advancing peritonitis. Although colonoscopic perforation is rare (0.03% to 0.7% incidence), it can lead to high mortality and morbidity rates. Viral gastroenteritis (Choice B) typically presents with symptoms like diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps, but it is not the most immediate concern in this scenario. Colon cancer (Choice C) and diverticulitis (Choice D) are important conditions but are less likely to present acutely after colonoscopy compared to bowel perforation.

4. The nurse is reviewing the characteristics of culture. Which statement is correct regarding the development of one's culture?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Culture is a complex phenomenon that includes attitudes, beliefs, self-definitions, norms, roles, and values learned from birth through the processes of language acquisition and socialization. It is not biologically or genetically determined, but rather acquired through social interactions. The correct answer, 'Learned through language acquisition and socialization,' aligns with the understanding that culture is a learned behavior. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because culture is not genetically determined, nonspecific, or biologically based on physical characteristics. Understanding that culture is acquired through language and socialization is essential for healthcare providers to provide culturally competent care.

5. A patient asks the nurse whether he is a good candidate to use a CPAP machine. The nurse reviews the client's history. Which condition would contraindicate the use of a CPAP machine?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that the patient is in the late stage of dementia. In late-stage dementia, individuals may have an inability to follow commands and understand instructions independently, which are essential for proper installation and use of a CPAP machine. This makes using a CPAP machine challenging and potentially ineffective for patients in this condition. Choice B, having a history of bronchitis, does not contraindicate the use of a CPAP machine. In fact, CPAP therapy can be beneficial for patients with respiratory conditions like bronchitis. Choice C, a history of suicidal gestures/attempts, while concerning for the patient's mental health, does not directly contraindicate the use of a CPAP machine. Choice D, being on beta-blockers, is not a contraindication for CPAP machine use. Beta-blockers are commonly used medications for various conditions and do not interfere with the use of a CPAP machine.

Similar Questions

Which clinical manifestations are recognized in nephrotic syndrome?
Claudication is a well-known effect of peripheral vascular disease. Which of the following facts about claudication is correct? Select the one that doesn't apply:
The child with hemolytic-uremic syndrome is anuric and will undergo peritoneal dialysis. Which measure should the nurse implement?
A client in the ICU has been intubated and placed on a ventilator. The physician orders synchronous intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV). Which statement best describes the work of this mode of ventilation?
A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's chart and notices that the patient suffers from conjunctivitis. Which of the following microorganisms is related to this condition?

Access More Features

NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses