NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. Which of these findings indicate that a pump to deliver a basal rate of 10 ml per hour plus PRN for pain breakthrough for a morphine drip is not working?
- A. The client complains of discomfort at the IV insertion site
- B. The client states 'I just can't get relief from my pain.'
- C. The level of the drug is 100 ml at 8 AM and is 80 ml at noon
- D. The level of the drug is 100 ml at 8 AM and is 50 ml at noon
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is that the level of the drug is 100 ml at 8 AM and is 80 ml at noon. With a basal rate of 10 mL per hour, a total of 40 mL should have been infused by noon, leaving only 60 mL in the container. Any amount greater than 60 mL at noon indicates that the pump is not functioning properly. Therefore, the finding of 80 mL at noon suggests the pump is not delivering the expected medication volume. Choices A and B are related to the client's symptoms and may indicate the need for pain management assessment but do not specifically indicate pump malfunction. Choice D, where the level drops to 50 mL at noon, would actually indicate that the pump is working effectively, as the expected volume has been delivered.
2. The client is seven (7) days post total hip replacement. Which statement by the client requires the nurse's immediate attention?
- A. I have bad muscle spasms in my lower leg of the affected extremity.
- B. I just can't 'catch my breath' over the past few minutes and I think I am in grave danger.
- C. I have to use the bedpan to pass my water at least every 1 to 2 hours.
- D. It seems that the pain medication is not working as well today.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: While all statements by the client require attention, the most critical one that demands immediate action is option B. Clients who have undergone hip or knee surgery are at an increased risk of postoperative pulmonary embolism. Sudden dyspnea and tachycardia are hallmark signs of this condition. Without appropriate prophylaxis such as anticoagulant therapy, deep vein thrombosis (DVT) can develop within 7 to 14 days after surgery, potentially leading to pulmonary embolism. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize signs of DVT, which include pain, tenderness, skin discoloration, swelling, or tightness in the affected leg. Signs of pulmonary embolism include sudden onset dyspnea, tachycardia, confusion, and pleuritic chest pain. Option B indicates a potentially life-threatening situation that requires immediate intervention to prevent serious complications.
3. The nurse is caring for a patient in the ICU who has had a spinal cord injury. She observes that his last blood pressure was 100/55, and his pulse is 48. These have both trended downwards from the baseline. What should the nurse expect to be the next course of action ordered by the physician?
- A. Assess the patient for decreased level of consciousness
- B. Administer Normal Saline
- C. Insert an NG Tube
- D. Connect and read an EKG
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The patient is entering neurogenic shock due to the spinal cord injury, leading to hypotension and bradycardia. Administering Normal Saline is essential to replace fluid volume, which can help in treating the hypotension and bradycardia symptomatically. This intervention aims to stabilize the patient's cardiovascular status. Assessing for decreased level of consciousness (Choice A) may be important but addressing the hemodynamic instability takes precedence. Inserting an NG Tube (Choice C) and connecting and reading an EKG (Choice D) are not the immediate actions required for the presenting symptoms of hypotension and bradycardia.
4. Why are subdural hemorrhages more common in the elderly?
- A. Increased anticoagulant use
- B. Increased risk of falls
- C. Brain atrophy
- D. Inconsistent care giving
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Subdural hemorrhages are more common in the elderly due to cerebral atrophy resulting from the natural aging process. This atrophy can lead to the stretching of bridging veins, making them more fragile and prone to tearing even with minor trauma. While increased anticoagulant use and a higher risk of falls are common in the elderly, brain atrophy plays a more direct role in the increased incidence of subdural hemorrhages. Inconsistent caregiving, on the other hand, is not a direct cause of subdural hemorrhages but may impact the overall management and outcome of such cases.
5. The nurse is caring for a patient who has recently had a successful catheter ablation. Which assessment finding demonstrates a successful outcome of this procedure?
- A. The patient is free of electrolyte imbalances
- B. The patient's WBC count is within normal limits
- C. The patient's EKG reading is regular
- D. The patient's urine output is 45 mL/hour
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A successful outcome of a catheter ablation procedure for arrhythmias, particularly SVT, is indicated by a regular EKG reading. Catheter ablation involves the use of radiofrequency energy to destroy the conduction fiber in the heart responsible for the arrhythmia. This destruction helps in preventing further episodes of arrhythmia. While choices A, B, and D are important assessments in patient care, they are not specific indicators of the success of a catheter ablation procedure. Electrolyte imbalances, WBC count, and urine output can be affected by various factors and are not directly related to the effectiveness of a catheter ablation in treating arrhythmias.
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