NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. Which clinical manifestations are recognized in nephrotic syndrome?
- A. Hematuria, bacteriuria, weight gain
- B. Gross hematuria, albuminuria, fever
- C. Hypertension, weight loss, proteinuria
- D. Massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema. In this syndrome, there is loss of proteins, particularly albumin, in the urine leading to hypoalbuminemia, fluid retention, and subsequent edema. This results in elevated lipid levels like hypercholesterolemia, but not hypertension. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Hematuria, bacteriuria, fever, and weight loss are not typically associated with nephrotic syndrome, distinguishing it from other kidney disorders.
2. Which of these individuals would the nurse suspect as having the greatest risk of contracting Hepatitis B?
- A. A sexually active 45-year-old man who has Type 1 Diabetes
- B. A 75-year-old woman who lives in a crowded nursing home
- C. A child who lives in a country with poor sanitation and hygiene standards
- D. A sexually active 23-year-old man who works in a hospital
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is a sexually active 23-year-old man who works in a hospital. This individual is at the highest risk of contracting Hepatitis B due to exposure in a healthcare setting where potential bloodborne pathogens are present. Being sexually active also increases the risk of transmission through sexual contact. Choice A, a 45-year-old man with Type 1 Diabetes, is not directly associated with an increased risk of Hepatitis B. Choice B, a 75-year-old woman living in a crowded nursing home, is at risk for other infections due to the living environment but not specifically for Hepatitis B. Choice C, a child in a country with poor sanitation, is more at risk for water or foodborne illnesses rather than Hepatitis B transmission.
3. Which of the following diseases is caused by the Bordetella pertussis bacterium?
- A. German Measles
- B. RSV
- C. Meningitis
- D. Whooping Cough
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Bordetella pertussis is the bacterium responsible for causing Whooping Cough, also known as pertussis. Meningitis can be caused by various bacteria, but not specifically by Bordetella pertussis. German Measles, also known as Rubella, and RSV (Respiratory Syncytial Virus) are viral infections and are not caused by the Bordetella pertussis bacterium. Therefore, the correct answer is Whooping Cough, caused by Bordetella pertussis.
4. What nursing intervention demonstrates that the nurse understands the priority nursing diagnosis when caring for oral cancer patients with extensive tumor involvement and/or a high amount of secretions?
- A. The nurse uses a pen pad to communicate with the patient
- B. The nurse provides oral care every 2 hours
- C. The nurse listens for bowel sounds every 4 hours
- D. The nurse suctions as needed and elevates the head of the bed
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to suction as needed and elevate the head of the bed. This intervention is crucial for managing Ineffective Airway Clearance, which is the priority nursing diagnosis in oral cancer patients with extensive tumor involvement and/or a high amount of secretions. Suctioning helps clear secretions that may obstruct the airway, while elevating the head of the bed promotes optimal respiratory function. Providing oral care every 2 hours may be important for overall oral health but is not directly related to addressing the priority diagnosis. Listening for bowel sounds every 4 hours is more relevant to gastrointestinal assessment and not specific to managing airway clearance issues in oral cancer patients.
5. The patient in the emergency room has a history of alprazolam (Xanax) abuse and abruptly stopped taking Xanax about 24 hours ago. He presents with visible tremors, pacing, fear, impaired concentration, and memory. Which intervention takes priority?
- A. Have the patient lie down on a stretcher with bed rails raised
- B. Offer the patient a cup of water and a small amount of food
- C. Reassure the patient about his well-being
- D. Inform the physician about the patient's Xanax withdrawal
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The 1-4 day period after Xanax withdrawal is critical as it poses the highest risk of life-threatening seizures. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine, and sudden cessation can lead to severe withdrawal symptoms. The patient's visible tremors, fear, pacing, and cognitive impairment indicate a state of heightened distress and potential seizure risk. Placing the patient on a stretcher with raised bed rails is essential for seizure precautions, ensuring safety and preventing injury during a potential seizure. Offering water and food, reassuring the patient, or informing the physician about Xanax withdrawal are not immediate priorities compared to managing the risk of seizures in this high-risk situation.
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