Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's chart and notices that the patient suffers from conjunctivitis. Which of the following microorganisms is related to this condition?

• A. Yersinia pestis
• B. Helicobacter pylori
• C. Vibrio cholerae
• D. Haemophilus aegyptius

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Haemophilus aegyptius. Haemophilus influenzae biogroup aegyptius (Hae) is a causative agent of acute and often purulent conjunctivitis, more commonly known as pink eye. Yersinia pestis, Helicobacter pylori, and Vibrio cholerae are not associated with conjunctivitis. Yersinia pestis causes the plague, Helicobacter pylori is associated with gastric ulcers, and Vibrio cholerae causes cholera.

2. A child presents to the emergency department with colicky abdominal pain in the lower right quadrant. What disorder is suspected based on these symptoms?

• A. Peritonitis
• B. Appendicitis
• C. Intussusception
• D. Hirschsprung's disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The child's presentation of colicky abdominal pain in the lower right quadrant is classic for appendicitis. Appendicitis typically presents with localized pain that starts near the umbilicus and then shifts to the right lower quadrant. Peritonitis, on the other hand, is characterized by diffuse abdominal pain, tenderness, and guarding, usually resulting from organ perforation or intestinal obstruction. Intussusception is associated with acute, severe abdominal pain and currant jelly-like stools due to intestinal telescoping. Hirschsprung's disease, which lacks ganglion cells in the colon, manifests with symptoms like constipation, abdominal distension, and foul-smelling, ribbon-like stools.

3. A teen patient is admitted to the hospital by his physician who suspects a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. Which of the following findings is consistent with this diagnosis? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.
• B. Urine output of 350 ml in 24 hours.
• C. Brown ("tea-colored"?) urine.
• D. Generalized edema.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Generalized edema.' Acute glomerulonephritis typically presents with periorbital edema, not generalized edema. Findings in acute glomerulonephritis include dark, smoky, or tea-colored urine (hematuria) due to red blood cells in the urine, elevated blood pressure, and proteinuria. The urine specific gravity may be high due to decreased urine output, but a urine output of 350 ml in 24 hours is extremely low and suggestive of renal impairment. Generalized edema is more commonly associated with nephrotic syndrome, where there is significant proteinuria leading to hypoalbuminemia and subsequent fluid retention in tissues. In acute glomerulonephritis, the edema is usually limited to the face and lower extremities, not generalized.

4. A patient with severe Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease is receiving discharge teaching. Which of these statements by the patient indicates a need for more teaching?

• A. ''I'm going to limit my meals to 2-3 per day to reduce acid secretion.''
• B. ''I'm going to make sure to remain upright after meals and elevate my head when I sleep.''
• C. ''I won't be drinking tea or coffee or eating chocolate anymore.''
• D. ''I'm going to start trying to lose some weight.''

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is ''I'm going to limit my meals to 2-3 per day to reduce acid secretion.'' This statement indicates a need for more teaching because large meals increase the volume and pressure in the stomach, delaying gastric emptying, and worsening symptoms of Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD). The recommended approach is to eat smaller, more frequent meals (4-6 small meals a day) to reduce acid reflux. Choices B, C, and D demonstrate good understanding of GERD management by highlighting the importance of staying upright after meals, avoiding trigger foods like tea, coffee, and chocolate, and addressing weight management, which are all appropriate strategies to manage GERD symptoms.

5. A patient is admitted with active tuberculosis (TB). The nurse should question a healthcare provider's order to discontinue airborne precautions unless which assessment finding is documented?

• A. Chest x-ray shows no upper lobe infiltrates.
• B. TB medications have been taken for 6 months.
• C. Mantoux testing shows an induration of 10 mm.
• D. Three sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli are negative.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Three sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli are negative. Negative sputum smears indicate that Mycobacterium tuberculosis is not present in the sputum, and the patient cannot transmit the bacteria by the airborne route. This finding is crucial for discontinuing airborne precautions. Choice A is incorrect because chest x-rays do not determine the presence of active TB for transmission precautions. Choice B is not directly related to the infectiousness of TB; completing a 6-month course of medication is important for treatment but does not confirm the absence of active disease or infectiousness. Choice C is not relevant to assessing infectiousness; Mantoux testing measures exposure to TB but does not confirm the absence of active infection or infectiousness.

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