NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. Mr. V is receiving treatment for a spinal cord injury after falling off of his deck at home. He has undergone spinal surgery and has been placed in a halo traction device. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate for a client with a spinal cord injury?
- A. Turn the client and use incentive spirometry each shift
- B. Administer stool softeners as ordered
- C. Turn the head slowly to avoid further damage to the spine
- D. Change NPO status
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with a spinal cord injury, administering stool softeners as ordered is a crucial nursing intervention. Patients with spinal cord injuries are at higher risk of constipation due to decreased mobility. Stool softeners help prevent constipation and potential fecal impaction. Turning the client and using incentive spirometry each shift can be beneficial for respiratory function but is not the most vital intervention in this scenario. Turning the head slowly to avoid further damage to the spine is important but is not directly related to preventing constipation. Changing NPO status is not relevant to preventing constipation or managing a spinal cord injury.
2. A 3-year-old had a hip spica cast applied 2 hours ago. In order to facilitate drying, the nurse should
- A. Expose the cast to air and turn the child frequently
- B. Use a heat lamp to reduce the drying time
- C. Handle the cast with the abductor bar
- D. Turn the child as little as possible
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After applying a hip spica cast, it is important to facilitate drying by exposing the cast to air and turning the child frequently. This helps promote even drying and prevents complications such as skin breakdown. Using a heat lamp can cause burns and is not recommended. Handling the cast with the abductor bar does not aid in drying the cast. Turning the child as little as possible is incorrect as regular turning is crucial to prevent complications.
3. A client comes to the clinic for treatment of recurrent pelvic inflammatory disease. The nurse recognizes that this condition most frequently follows which type of infection?
- A. Trichomoniasis
- B. Chlamydia
- C. Staphylococcus
- D. Streptococcus
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Chlamydial infections are one of the most common causes of salpingitis or pelvic inflammatory disease. Chlamydia can ascend from the vagina or cervix to the reproductive organs, leading to inflammation and infection. Trichomoniasis, caused by a parasite, typically presents with different symptoms than pelvic inflammatory disease and is not the primary cause. Staphylococcus and Streptococcus are bacteria that can cause other types of infections but are not the primary culprits in most cases of pelvic inflammatory disease.
4. Claudication is a well-known effect of peripheral vascular disease. Which of the following facts about claudication is correct? Select the one that doesn't apply:
- A. It results when oxygen demand is greater than oxygen supply.
- B. It is characterized by pain that often occurs during rest.
- C. It is a result of tissue hypoxia.
- D. It is characterized by cramping and weakness.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Claudication is a symptom of peripheral vascular disease where there is an inadequate supply of oxygen to the muscles due to reduced blood flow. This mismatch between oxygen demand and supply leads to tissue hypoxia, resulting in cramping, weakness, and discomfort. Option D correctly states that claudication is characterized by cramping and weakness, making it the correct answer. Options A, B, and C are incorrect. Claudication occurs when oxygen demand exceeds supply, not the other way around as stated in Option A. Pain in claudication typically occurs with activity, not at rest as mentioned in Option B. While tissue hypoxia is a consequence of claudication, it is not the primary cause, making Option C incorrect.
5. The laboratory has just called with the arterial blood gas (ABG) results on four patients. Which result is most important for the nurse to report immediately to the health care provider?
- A. pH 7.34, PaO2 82 mm Hg, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, and O2 sat 97%
- B. pH 7.35, PaO2 85 mm Hg, PaCO2 45 mm Hg, and O2 sat 95%
- C. pH 7.46, PaO2 90 mm Hg, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, and O2 sat 98%
- D. pH 7.31, PaO2 91 mm Hg, PaCO2 50 mm Hg, and O2 sat 96%
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: pH 7.31, PaO2 91 mm Hg, PaCO2 50 mm Hg, and O2 sat 96%. These ABG results indicate uncompensated respiratory acidosis, a critical condition that requires immediate attention. In respiratory acidosis, there is an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood, leading to a decrease in pH. The other options present normal or near-normal ABG values, indicating adequate oxygenation and ventilation. Therefore, these values would not be as urgent to report compared to the patient with respiratory acidosis in option D.
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