NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. Mr. V is receiving treatment for a spinal cord injury after falling off of his deck at home. He has undergone spinal surgery and has been placed in a halo traction device. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate for a client with a spinal cord injury?
- A. Turn the client and use incentive spirometry each shift
- B. Administer stool softeners as ordered
- C. Turn the head slowly to avoid further damage to the spine
- D. Change NPO status
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with a spinal cord injury, administering stool softeners as ordered is a crucial nursing intervention. Patients with spinal cord injuries are at higher risk of constipation due to decreased mobility. Stool softeners help prevent constipation and potential fecal impaction. Turning the client and using incentive spirometry each shift can be beneficial for respiratory function but is not the most vital intervention in this scenario. Turning the head slowly to avoid further damage to the spine is important but is not directly related to preventing constipation. Changing NPO status is not relevant to preventing constipation or managing a spinal cord injury.
2. The nurse is planning care for a 48-year-old woman with acute severe pancreatitis. The highest priority patient outcome is
- A. maintaining normal respiratory function.
- B. expressing satisfaction with pain control.
- C. developing no ongoing pancreatic disease.
- D. having adequate fluid and electrolyte balance.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In acute severe pancreatitis, there is a risk of respiratory failure as a complication, making the maintenance of normal respiratory function the priority outcome. This patient may develop respiratory issues due to the inflammatory process affecting the diaphragm. While pain control, absence of ongoing pancreatic disease, and fluid/electrolyte balance are crucial, they are secondary to ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation to prevent respiratory compromise.
3. The nurse recognizes that teaching a 44-year-old woman following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy has been effective when the patient states which of the following?
- A. I can expect yellow-green drainage from the incision for a few days.
- B. I can remove the bandages on my incisions tomorrow and take a shower.
- C. I should plan to limit my activities and not return to work for 4 to 6 weeks.
- D. I will always need to maintain a low-fat diet since I no longer have a gallbladder.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is, 'I can remove the bandages on my incisions tomorrow and take a shower.' After a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, patients have Band-Aids over the incisions and can typically remove the bandages the next day. Patients are usually discharged the same or next day and have minimal restrictions on their daily activities. Yellow-green drainage from the incision would be abnormal, requiring the patient to contact their healthcare provider. While a low-fat diet may be recommended initially after surgery, it is not a lifelong requirement, as the body can adjust to the absence of the gallbladder over time. Choice A is incorrect as abnormal drainage should be reported. Choice C is incorrect as most patients can resume normal activities within a few days to a week. Choice D is incorrect as maintaining a low-fat diet is not a lifelong necessity after a cholecystectomy.
4. A patient with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH) is receiving nifedipine (Procardia). Which assessment would best indicate to the nurse that the patient's condition is improving?
- A. Blood pressure (BP) is less than 140/90 mm Hg.
- B. Patient reports decreased exertional dyspnea
- C. Heart rate is between 60 and 100 beats/minute
- D. Patient's chest x-ray indicates clear lung fields
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is for the patient to report decreased exertional dyspnea. In idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH), exertional dyspnea is a significant symptom indicating disease severity. Improvement in this symptom suggests that the medication, nifedipine, is effective in managing the condition. While nifedipine can affect blood pressure (choice A) and heart rate (choice C), these parameters are not specific indicators for monitoring IPAH improvement. Choice D, clear lung fields on the chest x-ray, does not directly correlate with the effectiveness of therapy for IPAH. Therefore, the most relevant assessment to monitor improvement in a patient with IPAH receiving nifedipine is a decrease in exertional dyspnea.
5. A patient's chart indicates a history of meningitis. Which of the following would you NOT expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Vomiting
- C. Fever
- D. Poor tolerance of light
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Increased appetite.' In cases of acute meningitis, loss of appetite would be expected rather than an increase. Meningitis is often caused by an infectious agent that colonizes or infects various sites in the body, leading to systemic symptoms. Common symptoms of acute meningitis include fever, vomiting, and poor tolerance of light due to meningeal irritation. The inflammatory response in the meninges can result in symptoms like photophobia. Increased appetite is not typically associated with acute meningitis. Therefore, choice A is the least likely symptom to be observed in a patient with acute meningitis. Choices B, C, and D are symptoms commonly seen in acute meningitis due to the inflammatory process affecting the central nervous system and meninges.
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