Nursing Elites

1. Mr. V is receiving treatment for a spinal cord injury after falling off of his deck at home. He has undergone spinal surgery and has been placed in a halo traction device. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate for a client with a spinal cord injury?

• A. Turn the client and use incentive spirometry each shift
• B. Administer stool softeners as ordered
• C. Turn the head slowly to avoid further damage to the spine
• D. Change NPO status

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a spinal cord injury, administering stool softeners as ordered is a crucial nursing intervention. Patients with spinal cord injuries are at higher risk of constipation due to decreased mobility. Stool softeners help prevent constipation and potential fecal impaction. Turning the client and using incentive spirometry each shift can be beneficial for respiratory function but is not the most vital intervention in this scenario. Turning the head slowly to avoid further damage to the spine is important but is not directly related to preventing constipation. Changing NPO status is not relevant to preventing constipation or managing a spinal cord injury.

2. The mother of a child who had a cleft palate repair 4 days ago is receiving home care instructions. Which statement by the mother indicates the need for further instruction?

• A. ''I will use a short nipple on the bottle.''
• B. ''I should avoid using straws for drinking.''
• C. ''I can give my child the pacifier in 2 weeks.''
• D. ''I may give my baby food mixed with water.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is ''I should avoid using straws for drinking.'' After a cleft palate repair, the child should avoid straws, pacifiers, spoons, and fingers near the mouth for 7 to 10 days to prevent injury to the surgical site. Allowing the child to use a straw can create negative pressure in the mouth, potentially disrupting the healing process. The other options are appropriate postoperative instructions for a child who had a cleft palate repair and do not pose a risk to the surgical site.

3. A patient's chart indicates a history of hyperkalemia. Which of the following would you not expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute?

• A. Decreased HR
• B. Paresthesias
• C. Muscle weakness of the extremities
• D. Migraines

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Migraines.' Migraines are not a symptom typically associated with hyperkalemia. In acute hyperkalemia, one would not expect to see migraines. Symptoms of hyperkalemia often include muscle weakness, paresthesias, and cardiac manifestations such as bradycardia or even cardiac arrest. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are more commonly associated with acute hyperkalemia compared to migraines, making it the correct choice.

4. A mother brings her 5-week-old infant to the health care clinic and tells the nurse that the child has been vomiting after meals. The mother reports that the vomiting is becoming more frequent and forceful. The nurse suspects pyloric stenosis and asks the mother which assessment question to elicit data specific to this condition?

• A. Are the stools ribbon-like, and is the infant eating poorly?
• B. Does the infant suddenly become pale, begin to cry, and draw the legs up to the chest?
• C. Does the vomit contain sour, undigested food without bile, and is the infant constipated?
• D. Does the infant cry loudly and continuously during the evening hours but nurses or takes formula well?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Vomiting undigested food that is not bile stained and constipation are classic symptoms of pyloric stenosis. Stools that are ribbon-like and a child who is eating poorly are signs of congenital megacolon (Hirschsprung's disease). An infant who suddenly becomes pale, cries out, and draws the legs up to the chest is demonstrating physical signs of intussusception. Crying during the evening hours, appearing to be in pain, eating well, and gaining weight are clinical manifestations of colic.

5. A patient is diagnosed with both human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and active tuberculosis (TB) disease. Which information obtained by the nurse is most important to communicate to the healthcare provider?

• A. The Mantoux test induration measured 7 mm.
• B. The chest x-ray revealed infiltrates in the lower lobes.
• C. The patient is receiving antiretroviral therapy for HIV infection.
• D. The patient has a cough producing blood-tinged mucus.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most critical information to communicate to the healthcare provider in a patient diagnosed with both HIV and active TB disease is that the patient is receiving antiretroviral therapy for HIV infection. This is crucial because drug interactions can occur between antiretrovirals used to treat HIV infection and medications used to treat TB. By informing the healthcare provider about the antiretroviral therapy, potential interactions can be assessed and managed effectively to optimize patient care. The other data provided, such as the Mantoux test result, chest x-ray findings, and presence of blood-tinged mucus, are important clinical information but are expected in a patient with coexisting HIV and TB and do not directly impact potential drug interactions between antiretrovirals and TB medications.

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