NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. A 3-year-old child was brought to the pediatric clinic after the sudden onset of findings that include irritability, thick muffled voice, croaking on inspiration, being hot to the touch, sitting leaning forward, tongue protruding, drooling, and suprasternal retractions. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Prepare the child for an X-ray of the upper airways
- B. Examine the child's throat
- C. Collect a sputum specimen
- D. Notify the healthcare provider of the child's status
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct initial action is to notify the healthcare provider of the child's status. The presenting symptoms described, such as irritability, thick muffled voice, croaking on inspiration, being hot to the touch, sitting leaning forward, tongue protruding, drooling, and suprasternal retractions, are indicative of epiglottitis, a potentially life-threatening condition. Immediate medical attention is crucial in such cases. While preparing for an X-ray or examining the throat may be necessary, the priority is to ensure prompt evaluation and intervention by the healthcare provider. Collecting a sputum specimen is not relevant in this situation and would cause unnecessary delay. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize communication with the healthcare provider to expedite appropriate management and treatment.
2. The healthcare provider calculates the IV flow rate for a patient receiving lactated Ringer's solution. The patient needs to receive 2000mL of Lactated Ringer's over 36 hours. The IV infusion set has a drop factor of 15 drops per milliliter. How many drops per minute should the healthcare provider set the IV to deliver?
- A. 8
- B. 10
- C. 14
- D. 18
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To determine the drops per minute, we use the formula Drops Per Minute = (Milliliters x Drop Factor) / Time in Minutes. In this case, Drops Per Minute = (2000mL x 15 drops/mL) / (36 hours x 60 minutes/hour) = 30000 / 2160 = 13.89 (approximately 14). Therefore, the correct answer is 14 drops per minute. Choice A (8), Choice B (10), and Choice D (18) are incorrect as they do not correctly calculate the drops per minute based on the given information.
3. Following a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) in their 6-year-old child, the parent's remark: "We just don't know how he caught the disease!"? The nurse's response is based on an understanding that:
- A. AGN is a streptococcal infection that involves the kidney tubules.
- B. The disease is easily transmissible in schools and camps.
- C. The illness is usually associated with chronic respiratory infections.
- D. It is not "caught"? but is a response to a previous B-hemolytic strep infection.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is that acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) is not 'caught' but is a response to a previous B-hemolytic strep infection. AGN is generally accepted as an immune-complex disease triggered by an antecedent streptococcal infection occurring 4 to 6 weeks prior. It is considered a noninfectious renal disease. Choice A is incorrect because AGN is not a streptococcal infection that involves the kidney tubules but rather a noninfectious renal disease. Choice B is incorrect as AGN is not easily transmissible in schools and camps but is a result of a previous streptococcal infection. Choice C is incorrect as AGN is not usually associated with chronic respiratory infections, but with a previous streptococcal infection.
4. The parents of an infant who underwent surgical repair of bladder exstrophy ask if the infant will be able to control their bladder as they get older. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Your child will need catheterization until bladder control is gained.
- B. Your child will be able to control their bladder like other children.
- C. You should potty train your child at the same time you normally would.
- D. Your child will not have a sphincter mechanism for the first 3 to 5 years, so urine will drain freely.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Bladder exstrophy is a congenital defect where the infant is born with the bladder located on the outside of the body. Surgical repair typically occurs within the first 1 to 2 days of life. In the following 3 to 5 years post-surgery, urine will drain freely from the urethra due to the absence of a sphincter mechanism. This period allows the bladder to develop capacity as the child grows. Subsequent surgical interventions will be required to establish a functioning sphincter mechanism. Therefore, the correct response is that the child will not have a sphincter mechanism for the first 3 to 5 years, leading to urine draining freely. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the physiological process and management of bladder exstrophy.
5. A patient who has just been admitted with community-acquired pneumococcal pneumonia has a temperature of 101.6�F with a frequent cough and is complaining of severe pleuritic chest pain. Which prescribed medication should the nurse give first?
- A. Codeine
- B. Guaifenesin (Robitussin)
- C. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
- D. Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn). Early initiation of antibiotic therapy is crucial in cases of community-acquired pneumococcal pneumonia to reduce mortality. While providing symptomatic relief with medications like Codeine for cough, Guaifenesin for mucus clearance, and Acetaminophen for fever and pain is important, the priority should be to start antibiotic therapy to target the underlying infection. Piperacillin/tazobactam is an appropriate choice for treating severe community-acquired pneumonia caused by pneumococcal organisms.
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