Nursing Elites

1. A child is suspected of suffering from intussusception. The nurse should be alert to which clinical manifestation of this condition?

• A. Tender, distended abdomen
• B. Presence of fecal incontinence
• C. Incomplete development of the anus
• D. Infrequent and difficult passage of dry stools

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Intussusception is an invagination of a section of the intestine into the distal bowel, and it is the most common cause of bowel obstruction in children aged 3 months to 6 years. A tender, distended abdomen is a typical clinical manifestation of intussusception. The presence of fecal incontinence is not a characteristic presentation of intussusception; it describes encopresis, which generally affects preschool and school-aged children but is not specific to intussusception. Incomplete development of the anus describes imperforate anus, a disorder diagnosed in the neonatal period, not intussusception. The infrequent and difficult passage of dry stools is characteristic of constipation, a common issue in children that can occur at any age, although it often peaks at 2 to 3 years old.

2. A patient experiences a chest wall contusion as a result of being struck in the chest with a baseball bat. The emergency department nurse would be most concerned if which finding is observed during the initial assessment?

• A. Paradoxic chest movement
• B. Complaint of chest wall pain
• C. Heart rate of 110 beats/minute
• D. Large bruised area on the chest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Paradoxic chest movement is the most concerning finding as it indicates a potential flail chest, which can lead to severe compromise in gas exchange and rapid hypoxemia. This condition requires immediate attention to prevent respiratory distress. Complaint of chest wall pain, a slightly elevated heart rate, and a large bruised area on the chest are important assessment findings but may not immediately threaten gas exchange or respiratory function. Therefore, identifying paradoxic chest movement is critical for prompt intervention and management.

3. A client has developed a vitamin C deficiency. Which of the following symptoms might the nurse most likely see with this condition?

• A. Cracks at the corners of the mouth
• B. Altered mental status
• C. Bleeding gums and loose teeth
• D. Anorexia and diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client with a severe vitamin C deficiency has a condition called scurvy. Scurvy is characterized by symptoms such as bleeding gums, loose teeth, poor wound healing, and easy bruising. The correct answer is 'Bleeding gums and loose teeth' because these are classic signs of scurvy due to vitamin C deficiency. Choice A ('Cracks at the corners of the mouth') is more indicative of a deficiency in B vitamins, specifically riboflavin. Choice B ('Altered mental status') is not typically associated with vitamin C deficiency but can occur with other conditions like vitamin B12 deficiency. Choice D ('Anorexia and diarrhea') are not common symptoms of vitamin C deficiency, as they are more commonly associated with other gastrointestinal issues or deficiencies in different nutrients.

4. A client with myocardial infarction is receiving tissue plasminogen activator, alteplase (Activase, tPA). While on the therapy, the nurse plans to prioritize which of the following?

• A. Observe for neurological changes
• B. Monitor for any signs of renal failure
• C. Check the food diary
• D. Observe for signs of bleeding

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority concern for a client receiving thrombolytic medication, such as tissue plasminogen activator (alteplase), is to monitor for signs of bleeding. Thrombolytics work by converting plasminogen to plasmin, which degrades fibrin. This process can lead to the breakdown of both fibrin-bound plasminogen on thrombi surfaces and unbound plasminogen in the plasma. The resulting plasmin can degrade fibrin, fibrinogen, factor V, and factor VIII. Observing for signs of bleeding is crucial due to the increased risk of hemorrhage associated with thrombolytic therapy. Monitoring for neurological changes, signs of renal failure, or checking the food diary are not the immediate priorities compared to detecting and managing potential bleeding complications.

5. A patient with a pleural effusion is scheduled for a thoracentesis. Which action should the nurse take to prepare the patient for the procedure?

• A. Start a peripheral IV line to administer any necessary sedative drugs.
• B. Position the patient sitting upright on the edge of the bed and leaning forward.
• C. Obtain a collection device to hold a reasonable amount of pleural fluid for extraction.
• D. Remove the water pitcher and remind the patient not to eat or drink anything for 6 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in preparing a patient for a thoracentesis is to position the patient sitting upright on the edge of the bed and leaning forward. This position helps fluid accumulate at the lung bases, making it easier to locate and remove. Sedation is not usually required for a thoracentesis, so starting an IV line for sedative drugs is unnecessary. Additionally, there are no restrictions on oral intake before the procedure since the patient is not sedated or unconscious. A large collection device to hold 2 to 3 liters of pleural fluid at one time is excessive as usually only 1000 to 1200 mL of pleural fluid is removed to avoid complications like hypotension, hypoxemia, or pulmonary edema. Therefore, the correct choice is to position the patient upright for the procedure.

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