NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. A patient is being treated in the Neurology Unit for Meningitis. Which of these is a priority assessment for the nurse to make?
- A. Assess the patient for nuchal rigidity
- B. Determine the patient's past exposure to infectious organisms
- C. Check the patient's WBC lab values
- D. Monitor for increased lethargy and drowsiness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Monitoring for increased lethargy and drowsiness is crucial as these symptoms indicate a decreased level of consciousness, which is the cardinal sign of increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP). Elevated ICP can lead to serious complications and requires immediate intervention. Assessing for nuchal rigidity is important in suspected cases of meningitis but monitoring lethargy and drowsiness takes precedence due to its direct correlation with ICP. Determining past exposure to infectious organisms and checking WBC lab values are important for diagnosing and treating meningitis but do not directly address the immediate concern of increased ICP.
2. What intervention should the nurse implement while a client is having a grand mal seizure?
- A. Open the jaw and place a bite block between the teeth
- B. Try to place the client on his side
- C. Restrain the client to prevent injury
- D. Place pillows around the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a grand mal seizure, the client is at risk of injury due to severe, involuntary muscle spasms and contractions. It is crucial for the nurse to avoid restraining the client or inserting objects into their mouth, as these actions may lead to further harm. Placing the client on their side can help facilitate the drainage of oral secretions and assist in maintaining an open airway, reducing the risk of aspiration. Restraint should be avoided as it can exacerbate muscle contractions and increase the risk of injury. Placing pillows around the client may not provide adequate support or protection during the seizure, making it a less effective intervention compared to positioning the client on their side.
3. A female patient is prescribed metformin for glucose control. The patient is on NPO status pending a diagnostic test. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of metformin?
- A. Diarrhea and Vomiting
- B. Dizziness and Drowsiness
- C. Metallic taste
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypoglycemia.' When a patient is on NPO status (nothing by mouth) and prescribed metformin, there is an increased risk of hypoglycemia due to the absence of oral intake. Metformin, as an anti-glycemic drug, can lower blood sugar levels, and without food intake, the risk of hypoglycemia is higher. Diarrhea and vomiting are common gastrointestinal side effects of metformin but are not the main concern in this scenario. Dizziness and drowsiness are potential side effects of some medications but are not typically associated with metformin. Metallic taste is a known side effect of metformin but is not the primary concern in this situation where hypoglycemia is more critical to monitor due to the patient's NPO status.
4. A 64-year-old patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is hospitalized with pneumonia. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care?
- A. Assist with active range of motion (ROM).
- B. Observe for agitation and paranoia.
- C. Give muscle relaxants as needed to reduce spasms.
- D. Use simple words and phrases to explain procedures.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with ALS, progressive muscle weakness is a significant issue. Assisting with active range of motion (ROM) exercises will help maintain muscle strength for as long as possible. Agitation and paranoia are not typically associated with ALS, making choice B incorrect. Giving muscle relaxants can further weaken muscles and depress respirations, worsening the condition, so choice C is inappropriate. Choice D is not directly related to the patient's physical condition and needs.
5. During an assessment of a client with cardiomyopathy, the nurse finds that the systolic blood pressure has decreased from 145 to 110 mm Hg and the heart rate has risen from 72 to 96 beats per minute, and the client complains of periodic dizzy spells. The nurse instructs the client to:
- A. Increase fluids that are high in protein
- B. Restrict fluids
- C. Force fluids and reassess blood pressure
- D. Limit fluids to non-caffeine beverages
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the client with cardiomyopathy is exhibiting signs of orthostatic hypotension, which is characterized by a significant drop in systolic blood pressure (>15 mm Hg) and an increase in heart rate (>15%), along with dizziness. These symptoms suggest volume depletion, inadequate vasoconstrictor mechanisms, and autonomic insufficiency. The appropriate nursing intervention in this case is to force fluids and reassess blood pressure to address the underlying issue of volume depletion and improve hemodynamic stability. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing fluids high in protein, restricting fluids, or limiting fluids to non-caffeine beverages are not appropriate actions for a client experiencing orthostatic hypotension and signs of volume depletion.
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