a patient is being treated in the neurology unit for meningitis which of these is a priority assessment for the nurse to make
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NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers

1. A patient is being treated in the Neurology Unit for Meningitis. Which of these is a priority assessment for the nurse to make?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring for increased lethargy and drowsiness is crucial as these symptoms indicate a decreased level of consciousness, which is the cardinal sign of increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP). Elevated ICP can lead to serious complications and requires immediate intervention. Assessing for nuchal rigidity is important in suspected cases of meningitis but monitoring lethargy and drowsiness takes precedence due to its direct correlation with ICP. Determining past exposure to infectious organisms and checking WBC lab values are important for diagnosing and treating meningitis but do not directly address the immediate concern of increased ICP.

2. A patient with a possible pulmonary embolism complains of chest pain and difficulty breathing. The nurse finds a heart rate of 142 beats/minute, blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, and respirations of 42 breaths/minute. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient presents with symptoms indicative of a pulmonary embolism (PE), such as chest pain, difficulty breathing, tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea. Elevating the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler's position is the priority to improve ventilation and gas exchange. This intervention should be initiated promptly to optimize oxygenation. Subsequent actions, such as notifying the healthcare provider, preparing for a spiral CT scan, and administering anticoagulant therapy, can follow after the patient's position is adjusted. The spiral CT scan is typically used to confirm the diagnosis of PE, and anticoagulant therapy is initiated upon confirmation of the diagnosis by the healthcare provider. Therefore, the immediate focus is on improving the patient's respiratory status by elevating the head of the bed.

3. A female patient is prescribed metformin for glucose control. The patient is on NPO status pending a diagnostic test. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of metformin?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypoglycemia.' When a patient is on NPO status (nothing by mouth) and prescribed metformin, there is an increased risk of hypoglycemia due to the absence of oral intake. Metformin, as an anti-glycemic drug, can lower blood sugar levels, and without food intake, the risk of hypoglycemia is higher. Diarrhea and vomiting are common gastrointestinal side effects of metformin but are not the main concern in this scenario. Dizziness and drowsiness are potential side effects of some medications but are not typically associated with metformin. Metallic taste is a known side effect of metformin but is not the primary concern in this situation where hypoglycemia is more critical to monitor due to the patient's NPO status.

4. A 30-year-old woman is experiencing anaphylaxis from a bee sting. Emergency personnel have been called. The nurse notes the woman is breathing but short of breath. Which of the following interventions should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a situation where a patient is experiencing anaphylaxis, it is crucial to act swiftly. Asking the woman if she carries an emergency medical kit is the most appropriate initial intervention. Many individuals with a history of anaphylaxis carry epinephrine auto-injectors, such as epi-pens, which can be life-saving in such situations. Initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is not indicated as the patient is breathing but short of breath, and CPR is not the first-line intervention for anaphylaxis. Checking for a pulse, though important, is not the initial priority in managing anaphylaxis. Staying with the woman until help arrives is essential for providing support and monitoring her condition, but confirming the availability of an emergency medical kit takes precedence to promptly address the anaphylactic reaction.

5. After 2 months of tuberculosis (TB) treatment with isoniazid (INH), rifampin (Rifadin), pyrazinamide (PZA), and ethambutol, a patient continues to have positive sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli (AFB). Which action should the nurse take next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The first action should be to determine whether the patient has been compliant with drug therapy because negative sputum smears would be expected if the TB bacillus is susceptible to the medications and if the medications have been taken correctly. Assessment is the first step in the nursing process. Depending on whether the patient has been compliant or not, different medications or directly observed therapy may be indicated. The other options are interventions based on assumptions until an assessment has been completed. Teaching about drug-resistant TB treatment (Choice A) is premature without knowing the current medication compliance status. Scheduling directly observed therapy (Choice C) assumes non-compliance without confirming it first. Discussing the need for an injectable antibiotic (Choice D) is premature and not necessarily indicated without assessing the current medication adherence.

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