NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. A patient is being treated in the Neurology Unit for Meningitis. Which of these is a priority assessment for the nurse to make?
- A. Assess the patient for nuchal rigidity
- B. Determine the patient's past exposure to infectious organisms
- C. Check the patient's WBC lab values
- D. Monitor for increased lethargy and drowsiness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Monitoring for increased lethargy and drowsiness is crucial as these symptoms indicate a decreased level of consciousness, which is the cardinal sign of increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP). Elevated ICP can lead to serious complications and requires immediate intervention. Assessing for nuchal rigidity is important in suspected cases of meningitis but monitoring lethargy and drowsiness takes precedence due to its direct correlation with ICP. Determining past exposure to infectious organisms and checking WBC lab values are important for diagnosing and treating meningitis but do not directly address the immediate concern of increased ICP.
2. Which of these clients is likely to receive sublingual morphine?
- A. A 75-year-old woman in a hospice program
- B. A 40-year-old man who just had throat surgery
- C. A 20-year-old woman with trigeminal neuralgia
- D. A 60-year-old man who has a painful incision
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is a 75-year-old woman in a hospice program. Sublingual morphine is commonly used in hospice care because patients may have difficulty swallowing, and intravenous access can be uncomfortable and not ideal for palliative care. Choice B, a 40-year-old man who just had throat surgery, is less likely to receive sublingual morphine as he may be able to swallow, and other pain management options may be more suitable. Choice C, a 20-year-old woman with trigeminal neuralgia, would typically require specific medications targeting neuropathic pain rather than sublingual morphine. Choice D, a 60-year-old man with a painful incision, may benefit from localized pain relief or other systemic pain management options, but sublingual morphine is not usually the first choice for this type of pain.
3. To prevent a Valsalva maneuver in a client recovering from an acute myocardial infarction, the nurse would:
- A. Assist the client in using the bedside commode
- B. Administer stool softeners daily as prescribed
- C. Administer antidysrhythmics PRN as prescribed
- D. Maintain the client on strict bed rest
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering stool softeners daily as prescribed is essential to prevent straining during defecation, which can lead to a Valsalva maneuver. Straining can increase intra-abdominal pressure, hinder venous return, and elevate blood pressure, risking cardiac complications in a client recovering from a heart attack. Using a bedside commode might be useful to minimize exertion during toileting but does not directly address the risk of a Valsalva maneuver. Administering antidysrhythmics PRN is not the primary intervention for preventing a Valsalva maneuver; these medications are used to manage dysrhythmias if they occur. Keeping the client on strict bed rest is not the best option as early mobilization is encouraged in post-myocardial infarction recovery to prevent complications such as deep vein thrombosis and muscle weakness.
4. Which of the following glands found in the skin secretes a liquid called Sebum?
- A. Apocrine Glands
- B. Sebaceous Glands
- C. Lacrimal Glands
- D. Sweat Glands
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Sebum is a liquid secreted by glands in the skin known as sebaceous glands. Sebum's primary function is to lubricate the skin and help maintain its integrity. Apocrine glands secrete a different type of sweat that is odorless but can develop an odor when combined with bacteria on the skin. Lacrimal glands produce tears to keep the eyes moist, and sweat glands secrete sweat to regulate body temperature through evaporation. Therefore, the correct answer is Sebaceous Glands because they specifically secrete sebum, distinguishing them from the other gland types mentioned.
5. To prepare a 56-year-old male patient with ascites for paracentesis, the nurse should?
- A. place the patient on NPO status.
- B. assist the patient to lie flat in bed.
- C. ask the patient to empty the bladder.
- D. position the patient on the right side.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To prepare a patient with ascites for paracentesis, the nurse should ask the patient to empty the bladder. This is important to decrease the risk of bladder perforation during the procedure. The patient should be positioned in Fowler's position to facilitate the procedure, not lie flat in bed, which can compromise breathing. Placing the patient on NPO status is unnecessary as sedation is not typically required for paracentesis. Positioning the patient on the right side is not a standard preparatory measure for paracentesis.
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