NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. A patient is being treated in the Neurology Unit for Meningitis. Which of these is a priority assessment for the nurse to make?
- A. Assess the patient for nuchal rigidity
- B. Determine the patient's past exposure to infectious organisms
- C. Check the patient's WBC lab values
- D. Monitor for increased lethargy and drowsiness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Monitoring for increased lethargy and drowsiness is crucial as these symptoms indicate a decreased level of consciousness, which is the cardinal sign of increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP). Elevated ICP can lead to serious complications and requires immediate intervention. Assessing for nuchal rigidity is important in suspected cases of meningitis but monitoring lethargy and drowsiness takes precedence due to its direct correlation with ICP. Determining past exposure to infectious organisms and checking WBC lab values are important for diagnosing and treating meningitis but do not directly address the immediate concern of increased ICP.
2. The nurse is working in a support group for clients with HIV. Which point is most important for the nurse to stress?
- A. They must inform household members of their condition.
- B. They must take their medications exactly as prescribed.
- C. They must abstain from substance use.
- D. They must avoid large crowds.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is that clients with HIV must take their medications exactly as prescribed. Antiretrovirals need to be taken as directed to prevent the development of drug-resistant strains and maintain treatment effectiveness. Missing doses can compromise the effectiveness of future treatments. Choice A, informing household members, is important for social support but not the most critical aspect of managing the condition. Choice C, abstaining from substance use, is important but not as crucial as medication adherence. Choice D, avoiding large crowds, is not directly related to HIV management as long as the individual's immune system is not significantly compromised.
3. A 36-year-old male patient in the outpatient clinic is diagnosed with acute hepatitis C (HCV) infection. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
- A. Schedule the patient for HCV genotype testing.
- B. Administer the HCV vaccine and immune globulin.
- C. Teach the patient about ribavirin (Rebetol) treatment.
- D. Explain that the infection will resolve over a few months.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action by the nurse is to schedule the patient for HCV genotype testing. Genotyping of HCV is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment regimen and guiding therapy decisions. Most patients with acute HCV infection progress to the chronic stage, so it is incorrect to inform the patient that the infection will resolve in a few months. There is no vaccine or immune globulin available for HCV, and ribavirin (Rebetol) is typically used for chronic HCV infection. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize genotyping to assist in treatment planning.
4. A client is seen for testing to rule out Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever. Which of the following signs or symptoms is associated with this condition?
- A. Fever and rash
- B. Circumoral cyanosis
- C. Elevated glucose levels
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fever and rash.' Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSP) is caused by the R. rickettsii pathogen, which damages blood vessels. Patients with RMSP typically present with fever, edema, and a rash that initially appears on the hands and feet before spreading across the body. The disease manifests following a tick bite. Choice A is correct as fever and rash are key indicators of RMSP. Circumoral cyanosis (choice B) is not typically associated with RMSP; it refers to a bluish discoloration around the mouth and is more indicative of oxygen deprivation. Elevated glucose levels (choice C) are not specific signs of RMSP. Therefore, choice D, 'All of the above,' is incorrect since only choice A, 'Fever and rash,' is associated with Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever.
5. When reading a lab report, you notice that a patient's sample is described as having anisocytosis. Which of the following most accurately describes the patient's condition?
- A. The patient has an abnormal condition of skin cells.
- B. The patient's red blood cells vary in size.
- C. The patient has a high level of fat cells and is obese.
- D. The patient's cells are indicative of necrosis.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Anisocytosis is a term that indicates variation in the size of red blood cells. When a patient is described as having anisocytosis, it means their red blood cells exhibit differences in size. This condition can be detected in blood samples and may indicate underlying blood disorders. The other choices are incorrect: Choice A refers to a skin cell condition, Choice C relates to obesity and fat cells, and Choice D suggests necrosis, none of which are associated with anisocytosis or red blood cell abnormalities. It is important to recognize specific terms like anisocytosis in laboratory reports to understand the potential implications for the patient's health.
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