Nursing Elites

1. Based on Mr. C's assessment, which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate?

• A. Elevate the lower extremities to 45 degrees to promote venous return
• B. Place Mr. C in the Trendelenburg position
• C. Administer total parenteral nutrition
• D. Monitor urine output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the context of Mr. C's assessment, the most appropriate nursing intervention is to monitor urine output. A client in hypovolemic shock may experience decreased urine output due to poor kidney perfusion. By monitoring urine output, the nurse can assess renal function and fluid status. Administering total parenteral nutrition (Choice C) is not indicated based on the information provided, as the priority is to stabilize the client's condition. Elevating the lower extremities (Choice A) may be helpful in some cases but is not the priority in this situation. Placing Mr. C in the Trendelenburg position (Choice B) is contraindicated in hypovolemic shock as it can worsen venous return and compromise cardiac output.

2. A client is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg daily. The health care provider has written a new order to give metoprolol (Lopressor) 25 mg B.I.D. In assessing the client prior to administering the medications, which of the following should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider?

• A. Blood pressure 94/60 mm Hg
• B. Heart rate 76 bpm
• C. Urine output 50 ml/hour
• D. Respiratory rate 16 bpm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Blood pressure 94/60 mm Hg.' Both digoxin and metoprolol decrease the heart rate. Metoprolol specifically affects blood pressure. Therefore, the heart rate and blood pressure need to be within normal range (HR 60-100 bpm; systolic BP above 100 mm Hg) to safely administer both medications. A blood pressure of 94/60 mm Hg indicates hypotension, which could be exacerbated by metoprolol, necessitating immediate reporting to the healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D are within normal limits and do not pose immediate risks related to the administration of these medications.

3. The infection control nurse is assigned to a patient with osteomyelitis related to a heel ulcer. The wound is 5cm in diameter and the drainage saturates the dressing so that it must be changed every hour. What is her priority intervention?

• A. Place the patient under contact precautions
• B. Use strict aseptic technique when caring for the wound
• C. Place another dressing to reinforce the first one
• D. Elevate the patient's leg to prevent more drainage

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority intervention for a patient with osteomyelitis related to a heel ulcer, with a wound that saturates the dressing every hour, is to place the patient under contact precautions. Contact precautions are essential when managing infectious wounds to prevent the spread of infection to healthcare workers, other patients, and visitors. Strict aseptic technique (Choice B) should always be used with wound care but is secondary to implementing contact precautions in this scenario. Placing another dressing (Choice C) or elevating the patient's leg (Choice D) may be necessary but do not address the immediate need for infection control measures.

4. A client is seen for testing to rule out Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever. Which of the following signs or symptoms is associated with this condition?

• A. Fever and rash
• B. Circumoral cyanosis
• C. Elevated glucose levels
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fever and rash.' Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSP) is caused by the R. rickettsii pathogen, which damages blood vessels. Patients with RMSP typically present with fever, edema, and a rash that initially appears on the hands and feet before spreading across the body. The disease manifests following a tick bite. Choice A is correct as fever and rash are key indicators of RMSP. Circumoral cyanosis (choice B) is not typically associated with RMSP; it refers to a bluish discoloration around the mouth and is more indicative of oxygen deprivation. Elevated glucose levels (choice C) are not specific signs of RMSP. Therefore, choice D, 'All of the above,' is incorrect since only choice A, 'Fever and rash,' is associated with Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever.

5. A client presents with symptoms of a sore throat, swollen lymph nodes in the neck, fever, chills, and extreme fatigue. Based on these symptoms, which of the following illnesses could the nurse consider for this client?

• A. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
• B. Hepatitis B
• C. Infectious mononucleosis
• D. Norovirus infection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Infectious mononucleosis is a viral disease caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. The symptoms of sore throat, fever, chills, swollen lymph nodes, and extreme fatigue are characteristic of infectious mononucleosis. The diagnosis is confirmed through the client's history and blood tests for the Epstein-Barr virus. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) presents with localized skin infections, not the systemic symptoms described. Hepatitis B typically presents with jaundice, abdominal pain, and liver inflammation, not the symptoms described. Norovirus infection commonly causes gastrointestinal symptoms like vomiting and diarrhea, not the symptoms presented by the client.

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