NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. Which of the following is TRUE about shock?
- A. A patient with severe shock does not always have an abnormally low blood pressure.
- B. Confusion and deteriorating mentation are indicative of hypotensive shock.
- C. Patients with compensated shock may not be able to maintain a normal blood pressure.
- D. A normal blood pressure does not imply that the patient is stable.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Confusion and deteriorating mentation are indeed indicative of hypotensive shock. It is important to note that a patient with hypotensive shock will likely exhibit deteriorating mental status. Choice A is incorrect because a patient in severe shock may not always have an abnormally low blood pressure, making it an unreliable indicator of shock severity. Choice C is incorrect because patients with compensated shock may present with normal blood pressure but still have inadequate tissue perfusion. Choice D is incorrect because a normal blood pressure does not guarantee the patient's stability, especially in cases of shock where tissue perfusion may be compromised despite normal blood pressure readings.
2. A patient with a possible pulmonary embolism complains of chest pain and difficulty breathing. The nurse finds a heart rate of 142 beats/minute, blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, and respirations of 42 breaths/minute. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer anticoagulant drug therapy.
- B. Notify the patient's healthcare provider.
- C. Prepare the patient for a spiral computed tomography (CT).
- D. Elevate the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler's position.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The patient presents with symptoms indicative of a pulmonary embolism (PE), such as chest pain, difficulty breathing, tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea. Elevating the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler's position is the priority to improve ventilation and gas exchange. This intervention should be initiated promptly to optimize oxygenation. Subsequent actions, such as notifying the healthcare provider, preparing for a spiral CT scan, and administering anticoagulant therapy, can follow after the patient's position is adjusted. The spiral CT scan is typically used to confirm the diagnosis of PE, and anticoagulant therapy is initiated upon confirmation of the diagnosis by the healthcare provider. Therefore, the immediate focus is on improving the patient's respiratory status by elevating the head of the bed.
3. The nurse is discussing negativism with the parents of a 30-month-old child. How should the nurse advise the parents to best respond to this behavior?
- A. Reprimand the child and give a 15-minute 'time out'
- B. Maintain a permissive attitude for this behavior
- C. Use patience and a sense of humor to deal with this behavior
- D. Assert authority over the child through limit setting
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Use patience and a sense of humor to deal with this behavior. The nurse should help the parents understand that negativism is a normal part of a toddler's growth towards autonomy. Reacting with patience and humor can help diffuse the situation and maintain a positive relationship with the child. Reprimanding the child and giving a 'time out' (Choice A) may not be effective for addressing negativism and can lead to power struggles. Maintaining a permissive attitude (Choice B) may reinforce negative behavior. Asserting authority through limit setting (Choice D) may be necessary in some situations, but using patience and humor is a more effective initial approach for handling negativism.
4. The nurse is preparing to care for a child with a diagnosis of intussusception. The nurse reviews the child's record and expects to note which sign of this disorder documented?
- A. Watery diarrhea
- B. Ribbon-like stools
- C. Profuse projectile vomiting
- D. Bright red blood and mucus in the stools
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Intussusception is a condition where a part of the bowel slides into the next section, causing an obstruction. The classic presentation includes severe abdominal pain that is crampy, intermittent, and may cause the child to draw knees to the chest. While vomiting can occur, it is not typically projectile in nature. A key hallmark of intussusception is the passage of bright red blood and mucus in the stools, often described as currant jelly-like. Watery diarrhea and ribbon-like stools are not typical signs of intussusception and should not be expected in a child with this condition.
5. Following mitral valve replacement surgery, a client develops PVCs. The healthcare provider orders a bolus of Lidocaine followed by a continuous Lidocaine infusion at a rate of 2 mg/minute. The IV solution contains 2 grams of Lidocaine in 500 mL of D5W. The infusion pump delivers 60 microdrops/mL. What rate would deliver 4 mg of Lidocaine per minute?
- A. 60 microdrops/minute
- B. 20 microdrops/minute
- C. 30 microdrops/minute
- D. 40 microdrops/minute
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the rate needed to deliver 4 mg/minute of Lidocaine, first, convert 2 grams to milligrams: 2 grams = 2000 mg. Then, set up a ratio between the total amount of Lidocaine (2000 mg) and the total volume of IV solution (500 mL): 2000 mg / 500 mL = 4 mg / x mL. Solving for x, x = 1 mL. Since the infusion pump delivers 60 microdrops per mL, multiplying by 60 microdrops/mL gives the correct rate of 60 microdrops/minute. This rate ensures the desired 4 mg of Lidocaine is delivered per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the accurate calculation based on the provided information.
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