Nursing Elites

1. Why are subdural hemorrhages more common in the elderly?

• A. Increased anticoagulant use
• B. Increased risk of falls
• C. Brain atrophy
• D. Inconsistent care giving

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Subdural hemorrhages are more common in the elderly due to cerebral atrophy resulting from the natural aging process. This atrophy can lead to the stretching of bridging veins, making them more fragile and prone to tearing even with minor trauma. While increased anticoagulant use and a higher risk of falls are common in the elderly, brain atrophy plays a more direct role in the increased incidence of subdural hemorrhages. Inconsistent caregiving, on the other hand, is not a direct cause of subdural hemorrhages but may impact the overall management and outcome of such cases.

2. A 23-year-old has been admitted with acute liver failure. Which assessment data are most important for the nurse to communicate to the healthcare provider?

• A. Asterixis and lethargy
• B. Jaundiced sclera and skin
• C. Elevated total bilirubin level
• D. Liver 3 cm below costal margin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most critical assessment data for the nurse to communicate to the healthcare provider in a patient with acute liver failure are asterixis and lethargy. These findings are indicative of grade 2 hepatic encephalopathy, which signals a rapid deterioration in the patient's condition, necessitating early transfer to a transplant center. Jaundiced sclera and skin, elevated total bilirubin level, and a liver 3 cm below the costal margin are all typical findings in hepatic failure but do not indicate an immediate need for a change in the therapeutic plan. Therefore, while these findings are relevant and should be reported, they are not as urgent as asterixis and lethargy in a patient with acute liver failure.

3. Following assessment of a patient with pneumonia, the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. Which assessment data best supports this diagnosis?

• A. Weak, nonproductive cough effort
• B. Large amounts of greenish sputum
• C. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute
• D. Resting pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 85%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Weak, nonproductive cough effort.' A weak, nonproductive cough indicates that the patient is unable to clear the airway effectively, supporting the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. In pneumonia, secretions can obstruct the airway, leading to ineffective clearance. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect ineffective airway clearance. Large amounts of greenish sputum (Choice B) may suggest infection or inflammation but do not specifically indicate ineffective airway clearance. The respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute (Choice C) and a resting pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 85% (Choice D) are more indicative of impaired gas exchange or respiratory distress rather than ineffective airway clearance.

4. Your patient has shown the following signs and symptoms: Feeling very thirsty, large amount of water intake, dryness of the mouth, and urinary frequency. What physical disorder does this patient most likely have?

• A. Diabetes
• B. Angina
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient is exhibiting classic signs of diabetes, such as polydipsia (feeling very thirsty), polyuria (large amount of water intake and urinary frequency), and xerostomia (dryness of the mouth). These symptoms are indicative of high blood glucose levels, which are characteristic of diabetes. Other common signs of diabetes include poor vision, unexplained weight loss, peripheral neuropathy (tingling in the feet and hands), and fatigue. Angina is chest pain due to reduced blood flow to the heart, not associated with the symptoms described in the patient. Hypertension is high blood pressure, which typically does not present with these specific symptoms related to diabetes. Hypotension is low blood pressure and is not consistent with the signs and symptoms presented by the patient, pointing more towards diabetes as the likely diagnosis.

5. A client with schizophrenia is receiving Haloperidol (Haldol) 5 mg t.i.d.. The client's family is alarmed and calls the clinic when 'his eyes rolled upward.' The nurse recognizes this as what type of side effect?

• A. Oculogyric crisis
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Nystagmus
• D. Dysphagia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Oculogyric crisis is a known side effect of antipsychotic medications like Haloperidol (Haldol) and is characterized by involuntary upward deviation of the eyes. This condition can be distressing to both the client and their family. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different side effect characterized by repetitive, involuntary movements, especially of the face and tongue, which can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Nystagmus (Choice C) is an involuntary eye movement that is rhythmic and can occur for various reasons but is not specific to Haloperidol use. Dysphagia (Choice D) refers to difficulty swallowing and is not typically associated with the use of Haloperidol.

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