NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram
1. Why are subdural hemorrhages more common in the elderly?
- A. Increased anticoagulant use
- B. Increased risk of falls
- C. Brain atrophy
- D. Inconsistent care giving
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Subdural hemorrhages are more common in the elderly due to cerebral atrophy resulting from the natural aging process. This atrophy can lead to the stretching of bridging veins, making them more fragile and prone to tearing even with minor trauma. While increased anticoagulant use and a higher risk of falls are common in the elderly, brain atrophy plays a more direct role in the increased incidence of subdural hemorrhages. Inconsistent caregiving, on the other hand, is not a direct cause of subdural hemorrhages but may impact the overall management and outcome of such cases.
2. In educating clients on ways to manage pain, which topic can be appropriately delegated to an LPN/LVN who will continue under supervision?
- A. Acupuncture
- B. Guided Imagery
- C. Alternating Rest/Activity
- D. Over-the-counter medications
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Alternating Rest/Activity.' This topic falls within the nursing scope of practice and is typically covered in the training and education of all nurses, including LPN/LVNs. Educating clients on alternating rest and activity is safe, straightforward, and a standard non-pharmacological pain management strategy. Acupuncture (Choice A) and Guided Imagery (Choice B) involve specific skills and techniques that are typically outside the scope of practice for LPN/LVNs. Over-the-counter medications (Choice D) may require additional assessment, monitoring, and considerations that are beyond the usual delegation for LPN/LVNs.
3. A 4-year-old child with acute glomerulonephritis is admitted to the hospital. The nurse identifies which client problem in the plan of care as the priority?
- A. Infection related to hypertension
- B. Injury related to loss of blood in urine
- C. Excessive fluid volume related to decreased plasma filtration
- D. Retarded growth and development related to a chronic disease
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In acute glomerulonephritis, the child experiences excessive accumulation of water and retention of sodium, leading to circulatory congestion and edema. Excessive fluid volume is a primary concern due to the disease process. Hypertension and infection are not directly related to acute glomerulonephritis; therefore, they are not the priority client problems. While hematuria (blood in urine) may occur, it typically does not lead to significant injury that takes precedence over excessive fluid volume. Acute glomerulonephritis is an acute condition, not chronic; therefore, retarded growth and development related to a chronic disease is not the priority issue. With proper management, most children recover completely without long-term growth and development issues.
4. A patient is suspected to have sustained a spinal cord injury. What best describes the overarching principles used to guide the care for this type of condition?
- A. Immobilize the cervical area to prevent further injury
- B. Monitor the patient's level of consciousness to prevent neurologic deterioration
- C. Help the patient with activities of daily living and provide emotional and physical support to help them adjust to their injury
- D. Facilitate tissue perfusion to the spinal cord while maintaining airway and breathing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to facilitate tissue perfusion to the spinal cord while maintaining airway and breathing. In the acute phase of a spinal cord injury, ensuring proper tissue perfusion to the spinal cord is crucial to prevent further damage. Maintaining airway, breathing, and circulation is essential in guiding the overall care for a patient with a spinal cord injury. Choices A, B, and C, while important in certain aspects of care, are not the overarching principles that guide the immediate management of a suspected spinal cord injury.
5. A client is scheduled for a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). The nurse knows that a PTCA is:
- A. Surgical repair of a diseased coronary artery
- B. Placement of an automatic internal cardiac defibrillator
- C. Procedure that compresses plaque against the wall of the diseased coronary artery to improve blood flow
- D. Non-invasive radiographic examination of the heart
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) is a procedure that compresses plaque against the wall of the diseased coronary artery to improve blood flow. It is performed during a cardiac catheterization to improve coronary artery blood flow in a diseased artery. Surgical repair of a diseased coronary artery is typically done through procedures like aorto-coronary bypass graft (ACBG) rather than PTCA. Placement of an automatic internal cardiac defibrillator (AICD) is a different procedure used for managing cardiac arrhythmias. Non-invasive radiographic examination of the heart refers to procedures like echocardiography or cardiac MRI, not PTCA.
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