NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. A client who has undergone radiation therapy presents with itching, redness, burning pain, and skin sloughing on the chest and abdomen. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for this client?
- A. Apply ointment to the skin to avoid moisture
- B. Wash the area gently with water and pat dry
- C. Use a mild antiseptic soap to wash the area and pat dry
- D. Apply talcum powder to keep the skin dry
Correct answer: B
Rationale: For a client experiencing skin symptoms like redness, itching, burning pain, and sloughing after radiation therapy, it is crucial to maintain proper skin care. Applying ointments, lotions, or powders can worsen the condition by trapping moisture and leading to further skin irritation. The most appropriate intervention is to wash the affected area gently with water to cleanse it without further irritating the skin. Using mild antiseptic soap or talcum powder can also be harsh on the compromised skin. Patting the skin dry helps prevent friction and trauma to the affected area, promoting healing and comfort.
2. A patient comes to the emergency department with abdominal pain. Work-up reveals the presence of a rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which of the following actions should the nurse expect?
- A. The patient will be admitted to the medicine unit for observation and medication.
- B. The patient will be admitted to the day surgery unit for sclerotherapy.
- C. The patient will be admitted to the surgical unit and resection will be scheduled.
- D. The patient will be discharged home to follow-up with his cardiologist in 24 hours.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm is at significant risk of rupture, which can be life-threatening. The standard treatment for a rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm is surgical intervention to prevent rupture. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse to expect is that the patient will be admitted to the surgical unit, and resection will be scheduled. Observation and medication (Choice A) are not sufficient for a rapidly enlarging aneurysm, and sclerotherapy (Choice B) is not typically used for aortic aneurysms. Discharging the patient home (Choice D) would be inappropriate and dangerous given the risk of rupture.
3. The nurse is caring for a 2-year-old who is being treated with chelation therapy, calcium disodium edetate, for lead poisoning. The nurse should be alert for which of the following side effects?
- A. Neurotoxicity
- B. Hepatomegaly
- C. Nephrotoxicity
- D. Ototoxicity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is nephrotoxicity. Calcium disodium edetate, used in chelation therapy for lead poisoning, can lead to kidney toxicity. This is an important side effect to monitor in patients undergoing this treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Neurotoxicity, hepatomegaly, and ototoxicity are not typically associated with calcium disodium edetate therapy for lead poisoning.
4. What would be the most appropriate follow-up by the home care nurse for a 57-year-old male client with a hemoglobin of 10 g/dl and a hematocrit of 32%?
- A. Ask the client if he has noticed any bleeding or dark stools
- B. Tell the client to call 911 and go to the emergency department immediately
- C. Schedule a repeat Hemoglobin and Hematocrit in 1 month
- D. Tell the client to schedule an appointment with a hematologist
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client if he has noticed any bleeding or dark stools. Normal hemoglobin for males is 13.0 - 18 g/dl, and normal hematocrit for males is 42 - 52%. The values of hemoglobin and hematocrit provided for the client are below normal, indicating mild anemia. The first step for the nurse is to inquire about any signs of bleeding or changes in stools that could suggest bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract. This helps in assessing the possible cause of the low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. The other options are not appropriate as calling 911 and going to the emergency department immediately is not warranted for mild anemia, scheduling a repeat test in 1 month delays addressing the current concern, and referring the client to a hematologist may be premature without investigating the cause of the low levels first.
5. Which information about a 60-year-old patient with MS indicates that the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before giving the prescribed dose of dalfampridine (Ampyra)?
- A. The patient has relapsing-remitting MS
- B. The patient walks a mile a day for exercise
- C. The patient complains of pain with neck flexion
- D. The patient has an increased serum creatinine level
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is that the patient has an increased serum creatinine level. Dalfampridine should not be given to patients with impaired renal function as it can worsen their condition. Options A, B, and C are unrelated to the administration of dalfampridine. The fact that the patient has relapsing-remitting MS, walks for exercise, or experiences neck pain does not directly impact the decision to administer dalfampridine. However, an increased serum creatinine level is a contraindication for this medication and requires consultation with the healthcare provider to determine the appropriate course of action.
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