NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. Clinical manifestations of asthma include:
- A. Decreased expiratory time
- B. Increased peak expiratory flow
- C. Increased use of accessory muscles
- D. Increased oxygen saturation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clinical manifestations of asthma include increased use of accessory muscles, increased expiratory time, increased peak expiratory flow, and decreased oxygen saturation. Choice A, 'Decreased expiratory time,' is incorrect because asthma typically presents with increased expiratory time due to airway obstruction. Choice B, 'Increased peak expiratory flow,' is incorrect as asthma commonly leads to decreased peak expiratory flow due to airway constriction. Choice D, 'Increased oxygen saturation,' is incorrect because asthma exacerbations often result in decreased oxygen saturation levels.
2. When administering a shot of Vitamin K to a 30-day-old infant, which of the following target areas is the most appropriate?
- A. Gluteus maximus
- B. Gluteus minimus
- C. Vastus lateralis
- D. Vastus medialis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When administering medications to infants, it is common to use the vastus lateralis muscle in the thigh for injections. The preferred site is the junction of the upper and middle thirds of the vastus lateralis muscle. This area provides a good muscle mass for the injection and minimizes the risk of hitting nerves or blood vessels. The gluteus maximus and gluteus minimus are not typically used for infant injections due to the risk of injury to the sciatic nerve. The vastus medialis is not as commonly used as the vastus lateralis for infant injections.
3. The nurse is caring for a client with a serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L. The client is placed on a cardiac monitor and receives 40 mEq potassium chloride in 1000 ml of 5% dextrose in water IV. Which of the following EKG patterns indicates to the nurse that the infusions should be discontinued?
- A. Narrowed QRS complex
- B. Shortened "PR"? interval
- C. Tall peaked "T"? waves
- D. Prominent "U"? waves
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A tall peaked T wave is a characteristic EKG pattern associated with hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia refers to high levels of potassium in the blood, which can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and other serious complications. Tall peaked T waves are a red flag for potential cardiac issues and can indicate the need to discontinue potassium infusions. The other choices, such as narrowed QRS complex, shortened "PR"? interval, and prominent "U"? waves, are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. Therefore, recognizing tall peaked T waves is crucial for the nurse to take prompt action in managing the client's condition.
4. Mr. C is brought to the hospital with severe burns over 45% of his body. His heart rate is 124 bpm and thready, BP 84/46, respirations 24/minute and shallow. He is apprehensive and restless. Which of the following types of shock is Mr. C at highest risk for?
- A. Septic shock
- B. Hypovolemic shock
- C. Neurogenic shock
- D. Cardiogenic shock
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Mr. C, who has severe burns over 45% of his body, is at highest risk for hypovolemic shock. Burns lead to a loss of plasma volume, reducing the circulating fluid volume and impairing perfusion to vital organs and extremities. In this scenario, the signs of shock, such as increased heart rate, low blood pressure, shallow respirations, and restlessness, indicate a state of hypovolemic shock due to significant fluid loss. Septic shock (choice A) is primarily caused by severe infections, neurogenic shock (choice C) results from spinal cord injuries, and cardiogenic shock (choice D) stems from heart failure. However, in this case, the presentation aligns most closely with hypovolemic shock due to the extensive burn injury and its effects on fluid volume and perfusion.
5. After an endoscopic procedure with general anesthesia, what is a priority nursing consideration for a patient in the day surgery center?
- A. Raise the siderails of the patient's bed
- B. Do not offer fluids, food, or any oral intake
- C. Check the temperature of the patient
- D. Teach the patient to avoid aspirin or NSAIDS
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After an endoscopic procedure with general anesthesia, the priority nursing consideration is to not offer fluids, food, or any oral intake to the patient. Endoscopies involve passing a tube through the mouth into the esophagus or upper GI. Anesthesia is often given to inactivate the gag reflex, making the patient vulnerable to aspiration. Raising the siderails of the patient's bed is important for safety but not the immediate priority. Checking the patient's temperature may be important but is not the priority immediately after the procedure. Teaching the patient to avoid aspirin or NSAIDS is important for post-procedure care but is not the priority immediately after the endoscopic procedure.
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