Nursing Elites

1. A child is diagnosed with a Greenstick Fracture. Which of the following most accurately describes the broken bone?

• A. compound fracture of the fibula
• B. a partial break in a long bone
• C. fracture of the growth plate of the ulna near the wrist
• D. Colles fracture of the tibia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A Greenstick Fracture is commonly found in children due to their bones being more flexible. This type of fracture occurs when a bone bends and partially breaks, resembling what happens when a green stick from a tree is bent in half. Therefore, the most accurate description of a Greenstick Fracture is 'a partial break in a long bone.' Choice A, 'compound fracture of the fibula,' is incorrect as a Greenstick Fracture is not a compound fracture. Choice C, 'fracture of the growth plate of the ulna near the wrist,' is incorrect as it describes a different type of fracture. Choice D, 'Colles fracture of the tibia,' is incorrect as it refers to a specific type of fracture in a different bone.

2. Which finding is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider about a patient who received a liver transplant 1 week ago?

• A. Dry palpebral and oral mucosa
• B. Crackles at bilateral lung bases
• C. Temperature 100.8?F (38.2?C)
• D. No bowel movement for 4 days

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the patient's temperature of 100.8�F (38.2�C). In a patient who received a liver transplant 1 week ago, a fever is a significant finding that should be promptly communicated to the health care provider. Post-transplant patients are at high risk of infections, and fever can often be the initial indicator of an underlying infectious process. The other findings listed in choices A, B, and D are important and should be addressed, but they do not take precedence over a potential infection post-liver transplant. Dry palpebral and oral mucosa may indicate dehydration, crackles at bilateral lung bases may suggest fluid overload or infection, and no bowel movement for 4 days could indicate a bowel obstruction or ileus. However, in the context of a recent liver transplant, an elevated temperature is the most concerning and requires immediate attention to rule out infection.

3. Which of the following complaints is characteristic of a patient with Bell's Palsy?

• A. Paralysis of the right or left arm
• B. Malfunction of a certain cranial nerve
• C. A sub-condition of Cerebral Palsy
• D. A side effect of a stroke

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Bell's Palsy is characterized by the dysfunction of the Facial nerve, which is cranial nerve VII. This dysfunction leads to facial muscle weakness or paralysis, not affecting the arms. Choice A is incorrect as Bell's Palsy specifically involves facial muscles, not the arms. Choice C is incorrect as it incorrectly associates Bell's Palsy with a different condition, Cerebral Palsy. Choice D is incorrect as Bell's Palsy is not a side effect of a stroke but rather a distinct condition with its own etiology.

4. Septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock are all categorized as:

• A. Hypovolemic shock
• B. Cardiogenic shock
• C. Distributive shock
• D. Obstructive shock

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock are all types of distributive shock. Distributive shock is characterized by a decrease in systemic vascular resistance, leading to poor tissue perfusion. Septic shock is caused by severe infection, anaphylactic shock is an extreme allergic reaction, and neurogenic shock results from damage to the nervous system. Hypovolemic shock (Choice A) is characterized by a decrease in intravascular volume, cardiogenic shock (Choice B) is due to heart failure, and obstructive shock (Choice D) results from obstruction of blood flow. Therefore, the correct categorization for septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock is distributive shock.

5. A patient's nursing diagnosis is Insomnia. The desired outcome is: "Patient will sleep for a minimum of 5 hours nightly by October 31."? On November 1, a review of the sleep data shows the patient sleeps an average of 4 hours nightly and takes a 2-hour afternoon nap. What is the nurse's next action?

• A. Continue the current plan without changes.
• B. Remove this nursing diagnosis from the plan of care.
• C. Write a new nursing diagnosis that better reflects the problem.
• D. Revise the target date for outcome attainment and examine interventions.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse in this scenario is to revise the target date for outcome attainment and reevaluate interventions. The initial desired outcome was for the patient to sleep for a minimum of 5 hours nightly by October 31. Since the patient is currently sleeping an average of 4 hours nightly and taking a 2-hour afternoon nap, the goal has not been achieved. By extending the time frame for attaining the outcome, the patient may have more time to progress towards the desired sleep duration. Additionally, examining interventions is crucial to identify any changes or adjustments that may be necessary to help the patient achieve the desired outcome. Continuing the current plan without changes is not appropriate as the goal has not been met. Removing the nursing diagnosis from the plan of care should only be considered when the problem is resolved. Writing a new nursing diagnosis is not needed as the current diagnosis of Insomnia still accurately reflects the patient's condition.

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