Nursing Elites

1. A patient scheduled for cataract surgery asks the nurse why they developed cataracts and how to prevent it in the future. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Age is the biggest factor contributing to cataracts.
• B. Unprotected exposure to UV lights can cause cataracts.
• C. Age, eye injury, corticosteroids, and unprotected sunlight exposure are contributing factors to cataracts.
• D. Unfortunately, there is really nothing you can do to prevent cataracts, but they are amongst the most easily treated eye conditions.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Age, eye injury, corticosteroids, and unprotected sunlight exposure are contributing factors to cataracts.' This response is the best choice as it covers the most common contributing factors for cataracts and includes preventable risk factors. Choice A is incorrect because while age is a significant factor in cataract development, it is not the only one. Choice B is incorrect as UV light exposure is a risk factor for cataracts but not the most comprehensive response. Choice D is incorrect as there are preventive measures individuals can take to reduce their risk of developing cataracts, such as protecting their eyes from UV light and managing other risk factors.

2. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and decreased cardiac output is being cared for by a nurse. The nurse assesses the patient for mental status changes. What is the rationale for this intervention?

• A. Decreased cardiac output can cause hypoxia to the brain
• B. Mental status changes may be a side effect of the patient's medication
• C. Mitral regurgitation is a complication associated with some neurological disorders
• D. The patient may be confused about his diagnosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When caring for a patient with severe mitral regurgitation and decreased cardiac output, assessing for mental status changes is crucial. Decreased cardiac output can lead to inadequate perfusion and oxygenation of vital organs, including the brain, resulting in hypoxia. This hypoxia can manifest as mental status changes such as confusion, restlessness, or lethargy. Therefore, monitoring mental status helps in identifying potential hypoxic states and guiding appropriate interventions. The other options are incorrect as they do not directly correlate decreased cardiac output with potential hypoxia-induced mental status changes.

3. A patient diagnosed with alopecia would be described as having:

• A. body lice
• B. lack of ear lobes
• C. Indigestion
• D. hair loss

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'hair loss.' Alopecia is a medical term that specifically refers to the condition of hair loss, usually in patches or all over the body. Choice A, 'body lice,' refers to a parasitic infestation and is not related to alopecia. Choice B, 'lack of ear lobes,' is completely unrelated to the term alopecia, which is solely about hair loss. Choice C, 'Indigestion,' has no connection to alopecia as it pertains to digestive issues, not hair loss. Therefore, the correct description for a patient diagnosed with alopecia is 'hair loss.'

4. Following mitral valve replacement surgery, a client develops PVCs. The healthcare provider orders a bolus of Lidocaine followed by a continuous Lidocaine infusion at a rate of 2 mg/minute. The IV solution contains 2 grams of Lidocaine in 500 mL of D5W. The infusion pump delivers 60 microdrops/mL. What rate would deliver 4 mg of Lidocaine per minute?

• A. 60 microdrops/minute
• B. 20 microdrops/minute
• C. 30 microdrops/minute
• D. 40 microdrops/minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the rate needed to deliver 4 mg/minute of Lidocaine, first, convert 2 grams to milligrams: 2 grams = 2000 mg. Then, set up a ratio between the total amount of Lidocaine (2000 mg) and the total volume of IV solution (500 mL): 2000 mg / 500 mL = 4 mg / x mL. Solving for x, x = 1 mL. Since the infusion pump delivers 60 microdrops per mL, multiplying by 60 microdrops/mL gives the correct rate of 60 microdrops/minute. This rate ensures the desired 4 mg of Lidocaine is delivered per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the accurate calculation based on the provided information.

5. The mother of a newborn infant with hypospadias asks the nurse why circumcision cannot be performed. Which is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. Circumcision will cause an infection.
• B. Circumcision is not performed in a newborn.
• C. Circumcision will cause difficulty with urination.
• D. Circumcision has been delayed to save tissue for surgical repair.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The reason circumcision is not performed in a newborn with hypospadias is that the dorsal foreskin tissue will be needed for the surgical repair of hypospadias. Delaying circumcision allows for the preservation of tissue that will be crucial for the corrective surgery. This surgical repair is typically done within the first year of life to minimize the psychological impact on the child. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not address the specific reason for delaying circumcision in this case.

Similar Questions