NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. A patient scheduled for cataract surgery asks the nurse why they developed cataracts and how to prevent it in the future. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. Age is the biggest factor contributing to cataracts.
- B. Unprotected exposure to UV lights can cause cataracts.
- C. Age, eye injury, corticosteroids, and unprotected sunlight exposure are contributing factors to cataracts.
- D. Unfortunately, there is really nothing you can do to prevent cataracts, but they are amongst the most easily treated eye conditions.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Age, eye injury, corticosteroids, and unprotected sunlight exposure are contributing factors to cataracts.' This response is the best choice as it covers the most common contributing factors for cataracts and includes preventable risk factors. Choice A is incorrect because while age is a significant factor in cataract development, it is not the only one. Choice B is incorrect as UV light exposure is a risk factor for cataracts but not the most comprehensive response. Choice D is incorrect as there are preventive measures individuals can take to reduce their risk of developing cataracts, such as protecting their eyes from UV light and managing other risk factors.
2. Which of the following glands found in the skin secretes a liquid called Sebum?
- A. Apocrine Glands
- B. Sebaceous Glands
- C. Lacrimal Glands
- D. Sweat Glands
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Sebum is a liquid secreted by glands in the skin known as sebaceous glands. Sebum's primary function is to lubricate the skin and help maintain its integrity. Apocrine glands secrete a different type of sweat that is odorless but can develop an odor when combined with bacteria on the skin. Lacrimal glands produce tears to keep the eyes moist, and sweat glands secrete sweat to regulate body temperature through evaporation. Therefore, the correct answer is Sebaceous Glands because they specifically secrete sebum, distinguishing them from the other gland types mentioned.
3. During an assessment of a child admitted to the hospital with a probable diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome, what assessment findings should the nurse expect to observe? Select one that applies.
- A. Proteinuria
- B. Weight gain
- C. Decreased serum lipids
- D. Hematuria
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome, the hallmark finding is massive proteinuria due to increased glomerular permeability. This leads to hypoalbuminemia, resulting in generalized edema. Weight gain, not weight loss, is typically seen due to fluid retention. Serum lipids are elevated, not decreased, in nephrotic syndrome. Hematuria, the presence of blood in the urine, is not a typical finding in nephrotic syndrome.
4. A client was recently diagnosed with diverticulosis. What types of foods should the nurse recommend for this client?
- A. Whole grain cereal
- B. Eggs
- C. Cottage cheese
- D. Fish
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Diverticulosis is a condition characterized by small protrusions in the intestinal tract. To manage diverticulosis, a high-fiber diet is recommended. Foods rich in fiber help prevent constipation and reduce the risk of inflammation in the intestines. Whole grain cereals are an excellent source of fiber and can aid in maintaining bowel regularity. Eggs, cottage cheese, and fish are not high-fiber foods and may not provide the necessary dietary support for a client with diverticulosis. While protein-rich foods like eggs and fish are beneficial for overall health, they are not the primary recommendation for managing diverticulosis.
5. The nurse analyzes the results of a patient's arterial blood gases (ABGs). Which finding would require immediate action?
- A. The bicarbonate level (HCO3) is 31 mEq/L
- B. The arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) is 92%
- C. The partial pressure of CO2 in arterial blood (PaCO2) is 31 mm Hg
- D. The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (PaO2) is 59 mm Hg
Correct answer: D
Rationale: While all the values are abnormal, the low PaO2 level of 59 mm Hg indicates that the patient is at a critical point on the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve. At this level, a small decrease in PaO2 can lead to a significant drop in oxygen saturation and compromise tissue oxygenation. Therefore, immediate intervention is necessary to improve the patient's oxygenation status. Choice A (HCO3 of 31 mEq/L) may indicate metabolic alkalosis or compensation for respiratory acidosis; however, it does not require immediate action in this scenario. Choice B (SaO2 of 92%) is slightly low but not critically low to require immediate action. Choice C (PaCO2 of 31 mm Hg) is within the normal range and does not indicate immediate danger to the patient.
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