Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a 2-year-old child after corrective surgery for Tetralogy of Fallot. The mother reports that the child has suddenly begun seizing. The nurse recognizes this problem is probably due to

• A. A cerebral vascular accident
• B. Postoperative meningitis
• C. Medication reaction
• D. Metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a cerebral vascular accident. Polycythemia occurs as a physiological reaction to chronic hypoxemia, which commonly occurs in clients with Tetralogy of Fallot. Polycythemia and the resultant increased viscosity of the blood increase the risk of thromboembolic events, including cerebrovascular accidents. Signs and symptoms of a cerebral vascular accident include sudden paralysis, altered speech, extreme irritability or fatigue, and seizures. Postoperative meningitis (choice B) is less likely in this scenario as the sudden onset of seizing is more indicative of a vascular event rather than an infection. Medication reaction (choice C) is not the most probable cause given the history provided. Metabolic alkalosis (choice D) is not associated with sudden seizing in this context.

2. A patient has just been admitted with probable bacterial pneumonia and sepsis. Which order should the nurse implement first?

• A. Performing a chest x-ray via stretcher
• B. Obtaining blood cultures from two sites
• C. Administering Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) 400 mg IV
• D. Inserting an Acetaminophen (Tylenol) rectal suppository

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a patient with probable bacterial pneumonia and sepsis, the priority intervention is to obtain blood cultures from two sites before initiating antibiotic therapy. This is crucial to identify the causative organism and guide appropriate antibiotic treatment. Administering antibiotics without obtaining cultures first can interfere with accurate results. Performing a chest x-ray and administering acetaminophen can be done after obtaining blood cultures as they are important but not as urgent as identifying the causative organism in sepsis.

3. During the admission assessment of a client with chronic bilateral glaucoma, which statement by the client would the nurse anticipate due to this condition?

• A. "I have constant blurred vision."?
• B. "I can't see on my left side."?
• C. "I have to turn my head to see my room."?
• D. "I have specks floating in my eyes."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In chronic bilateral glaucoma, peripheral visual field loss occurs due to elevated intraocular pressure, leading to the need to turn the head to compensate for the visual field deficit. This symptom is characteristic of advanced glaucoma. Choice A is incorrect as constant blurred vision is a common symptom but not specific to peripheral vision loss in glaucoma. Choice B is incorrect because specific visual field deficits are more common than complete loss on one side. Choice D is incorrect as seeing floaters (specks floating in the eyes) is associated with other eye conditions like posterior vitreous detachment, not glaucoma.

4. The nurse is teaching parents about the treatment plan for a 2-week-old infant with Tetralogy of Fallot. While awaiting future surgery, the nurse instructs the parents to immediately report

• A. Loss of consciousness
• B. Feeding problems
• C. Poor weight gain
• D. Fatigue with crying

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Loss of consciousness.' While parents should report any concerning observations, they need to call the healthcare provider immediately if the infant experiences a loss of consciousness. This change in alertness may indicate anoxia, which can be life-threatening. Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital heart defect characterized by four main features: pulmonic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy. Surgery for Tetralogy of Fallot may be delayed or done in stages. Reporting loss of consciousness is crucial due to the potential seriousness of the condition. Feeding problems, poor weight gain, and fatigue with crying are important issues but do not require immediate reporting like loss of consciousness does.

5. When is cleft palate repair usually performed in children?

• A. A cleft palate cannot be repaired in children.
• B. Repair is usually performed by age 8 weeks.
• C. Repair is usually performed by 2 months of age.
• D. Repair is usually performed between 6 months and 2 years.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cleft palate repair timing is individualized based on the severity of the deformity and the child's size. Typically, cleft palate repair is performed between 6 months and 2 years of age. This age range allows for optimal outcomes and is often done before 12 months to promote normal speech development. Early closure of the cleft palate helps to facilitate speech development. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because a cleft palate can be repaired in children, and repair is usually performed between 6 months and 2 years of age, not at 8 weeks or 2 months.

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