a nurse is caring for a 2 year old child after corrective surgery for tetralogy of fallot the mother reports that the child has suddenly begun seizing
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NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram

1. A nurse is caring for a 2-year-old child after corrective surgery for Tetralogy of Fallot. The mother reports that the child has suddenly begun seizing. The nurse recognizes this problem is probably due to

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a cerebral vascular accident. Polycythemia occurs as a physiological reaction to chronic hypoxemia, which commonly occurs in clients with Tetralogy of Fallot. Polycythemia and the resultant increased viscosity of the blood increase the risk of thromboembolic events, including cerebrovascular accidents. Signs and symptoms of a cerebral vascular accident include sudden paralysis, altered speech, extreme irritability or fatigue, and seizures. Postoperative meningitis (choice B) is less likely in this scenario as the sudden onset of seizing is more indicative of a vascular event rather than an infection. Medication reaction (choice C) is not the most probable cause given the history provided. Metabolic alkalosis (choice D) is not associated with sudden seizing in this context.

2. A 28-year-old male has been found wandering around in a confusing pattern. The male is sweaty and pale. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 28-year-old male presenting with confusion, sweating, and pallor, the most likely cause is hypoglycemia, especially with no mention of trauma or infection. Therefore, the initial test to be performed should be a blood sugar check to rule out low blood sugar levels. Checking blood sugar levels is crucial in such a scenario as hypoglycemia can lead to altered mental status. A CT scan (choice B) is not typically the initial test for altered mental status without any focal neurological signs or head trauma. Blood cultures (choice C) are more relevant in cases suspected of infection, which is not a primary concern in this scenario. Arterial blood gases (choice D) may be considered later if there are concerns about respiratory status or acid-base disturbances, but in this case, checking the blood sugar level is the most immediate and appropriate action.

3. Which finding is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider about a patient who received a liver transplant 1 week ago?

Correct answer: C

Rationale:

4. While caring for the client during the first hour after delivery, the nurse determines that the uterus is boggy and there is vaginal bleeding. What should be the nurse's first action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's first action should be to massage the fundus until it is firm as uterine atony is the primary cause of bleeding in the first hour after delivery. Massaging the fundus helps to stimulate uterine contractions, which can help control the bleeding. Checking vital signs would be important but addressing the primary cause of bleeding takes precedence. Offering a bedpan is not a priority in this situation as the focus should be on managing the postpartum bleeding. Checking for perineal lacerations is also important but not the initial action needed to address the boggy uterus and vaginal bleeding.

5. Which assessment finding is of most concern for a 46-year-old woman with acute pancreatitis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is a palpable abdominal mass. In a 46-year-old woman with acute pancreatitis, a palpable abdominal mass may indicate the presence of a pancreatic abscess, which requires rapid surgical drainage to prevent sepsis. Absent bowel sounds, abdominal tenderness, and left upper quadrant pain are common symptoms in acute pancreatitis but do not necessarily indicate an immediate need for surgical intervention. Therefore, the presence of a palpable abdominal mass is the most concerning finding in this scenario.

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