NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram
1. What is the most frequent cause for suicide in adolescents?
- A. Progressive failure to adapt
- B. Feelings of anger or hostility
- C. Reunion wish or fantasy
- D. Feelings of alienation or isolation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Feelings of alienation or isolation are the most frequent cause for suicide in adolescents. Adolescents may experience a gradual isolation leading to a loss of meaningful social contacts, which can be self-imposed or result from an inability to express feelings. During this developmental stage, achieving a sense of identity and peer acceptance is crucial. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: Progressive failure to adapt, feelings of anger or hostility, and reunion wish or fantasy are not typically identified as the primary cause of suicide in adolescents.
2. A 53-year-old patient is being treated for bleeding esophageal varices with balloon tamponade. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care?
- A. Instruct the patient to cough every hour
- B. Monitor the patient for shortness of breath
- C. Verify the position of the balloon every 4 hours
- D. Deflate the gastric balloon if the patient reports nausea
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct nursing action for a patient with balloon tamponade for bleeding esophageal varices is to monitor the patient for shortness of breath. The most common complication of balloon tamponade is aspiration pneumonia. Additionally, if the gastric balloon ruptures, the esophageal balloon may slip upward and occlude the airway. Instructing the patient to cough every hour is incorrect as coughing increases the pressure on the varices and raises the risk of bleeding. Verifying the position of the balloon every 4 hours is unnecessary as it is typically done after insertion. Deflating the gastric balloon if the patient reports nausea is incorrect because deflating it may cause the esophageal balloon to occlude the airway, leading to complications. Therefore, monitoring for signs of respiratory distress is crucial in this situation.
3. A client complained of nausea, a metallic taste in her mouth, and fine hand tremors 2 hours after her first dose of lithium carbonate (Lithane). What is the nurse's best explanation of these findings?
- A. These side effects are common and should subside in a few days.
- B. The client is probably having an allergic reaction and should discontinue the drug.
- C. Taking the lithium on an empty stomach should decrease these symptoms.
- D. Decreasing dietary intake of sodium and fluids should minimize the side effects.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is, 'These side effects are common and should subside in a few days.' Nausea, metallic taste, and fine hand tremors are common side effects of lithium carbonate (Lithane) and typically diminish within a few days as the body adjusts to the medication. Option B is incorrect because these symptoms are not indicative of an allergic reaction. Option C is incorrect as taking lithium on an empty stomach does not directly address or decrease these specific side effects. Option D is also incorrect as reducing sodium and fluid intake is not the recommended approach to managing these particular side effects of lithium.
4. A client comes to the clinic for treatment of recurrent pelvic inflammatory disease. The nurse recognizes that this condition most frequently follows which type of infection?
- A. Trichomoniasis
- B. Chlamydia
- C. Staphylococcus
- D. Streptococcus
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Chlamydial infections are one of the most common causes of salpingitis or pelvic inflammatory disease. Chlamydia can ascend from the vagina or cervix to the reproductive organs, leading to inflammation and infection. Trichomoniasis, caused by a parasite, typically presents with different symptoms than pelvic inflammatory disease and is not the primary cause. Staphylococcus and Streptococcus are bacteria that can cause other types of infections but are not the primary culprits in most cases of pelvic inflammatory disease.
5. What nursing action demonstrates the nurse understands the priority nursing diagnosis when caring for patients being treated with splints, casts, or traction?
- A. The nurse assesses extremity pulse, temperature, color, pain, and feeling every hour.
- B. The nurse orders meals with adequate protein and calcium for the patient.
- C. The nurse teaches the patient never to insert objects under a cast to scratch an itch.
- D. The nurse administers oral painkillers as ordered.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess extremity pulse, temperature, color, pain, and feeling every hour. This action aligns with the priority nursing diagnosis of Risk for Peripheral Neurovascular Dysfunction related to fractures. Monitoring these factors is crucial to detect any signs of compromised circulation or nerve function promptly. Option B is incorrect as it does not directly address the priority nursing diagnosis. Option C is important but does not directly relate to the neurovascular aspect. Option D, administering painkillers, is necessary but does not specifically address the priority nursing diagnosis of neurovascular dysfunction.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access