NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. A client is admitted to the emergency room with renal calculi and is complaining of moderate to severe flank pain and nausea. The client's temperature is 100.8 degrees Fahrenheit. The priority nursing goal for this client is:
- A. Maintain fluid and electrolyte balance
- B. Control nausea
- C. Manage pain
- D. Prevent urinary tract infection
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the scenario presented, the priority nursing goal for a client with renal calculi experiencing moderate to severe flank pain and nausea should be to manage pain. Pain management is crucial as it alleviates suffering, improves comfort, and enhances the quality of life for the client. In the case of ureteral colic from renal calculi, the cornerstone of management is effective pain control. Prompt analgesia, typically achieved with parenteral narcotics or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), is essential to provide relief and facilitate the passage of the calculi. While maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance is important in clients with renal calculi, addressing pain takes precedence as it directly impacts the client's immediate well-being. Controlling nausea and preventing urinary tract infections are also important aspects of care, but they are secondary to managing the primary concern of pain in this urgent situation.
2. While caring for the client during the first hour after delivery, the nurse determines that the uterus is boggy and there is vaginal bleeding. What should be the nurse's first action?
- A. Check vital signs.
- B. Massage the fundus.
- C. Offer a bedpan.
- D. Check for perineal lacerations.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse's first action should be to massage the fundus until it is firm as uterine atony is the primary cause of bleeding in the first hour after delivery. Massaging the fundus helps to stimulate uterine contractions, which can help control the bleeding. Checking vital signs would be important but addressing the primary cause of bleeding takes precedence. Offering a bedpan is not a priority in this situation as the focus should be on managing the postpartum bleeding. Checking for perineal lacerations is also important but not the initial action needed to address the boggy uterus and vaginal bleeding.
3. The healthcare provider calculates the IV flow rate for a patient receiving lactated Ringer's solution. The patient needs to receive 2000mL of Lactated Ringer's over 36 hours. The IV infusion set has a drop factor of 15 drops per milliliter. How many drops per minute should the healthcare provider set the IV to deliver?
- A. 8
- B. 10
- C. 14
- D. 18
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To determine the drops per minute, we use the formula Drops Per Minute = (Milliliters x Drop Factor) / Time in Minutes. In this case, Drops Per Minute = (2000mL x 15 drops/mL) / (36 hours x 60 minutes/hour) = 30000 / 2160 = 13.89 (approximately 14). Therefore, the correct answer is 14 drops per minute. Choice A (8), Choice B (10), and Choice D (18) are incorrect as they do not correctly calculate the drops per minute based on the given information.
4. Rhogam is most often used to treat____ mothers that have a ____ infant.
- A. RH positive, RH positive
- B. RH positive, RH negative
- C. RH negative, RH positive
- D. RH negative, RH negative
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Rhogam is administered to RH-negative mothers who have an RH-positive infant to prevent the development of anti-RH antibodies in the mother's system. Choice A (RH positive, RH positive) is incorrect because Rhogam is not used when both mother and infant are RH positive. Choice B (RH positive, RH negative) is incorrect because Rhogam is used when the mother is RH negative, not RH positive. Choice D (RH negative, RH negative) is incorrect as Rhogam is not typically needed if both mother and infant are RH negative.
5. Which of the following conditions most commonly causes acute glomerulonephritis?
- A. A congenital condition leading to renal dysfunction.
- B. Prior infection with group A Streptococcus within the past 10-14 days.
- C. Viral infection of the glomeruli.
- D. Nephrotic syndrome.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Acute glomerulonephritis is most commonly caused by the immune response to a prior upper respiratory infection with group A Streptococcus. Glomerular inflammation occurs about 10-14 days after the infection, resulting in scant, dark urine and retention of body fluid. Periorbital edema and hypertension are common signs at diagnosis.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access