NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. A client is brought into the emergency department after finishing a course of antibiotics for a urinary tract infection. The client is experiencing dyspnea, chest tightness, and agitation. Her blood pressure is 88/58, she has generalized hives over her body, and her lips and tongue are swollen. After the nurse calls for help, what is the next appropriate action?
- A. Start an IV and administer a 1-liter bolus of Lactated Ringer's solution
- B. Administer 0.3 mg of 1:1000 epinephrine IM
- C. Administer 15 mg diphenhydramine IM
- D. Monitor the client until help arrives
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A client experiencing an anaphylactic reaction will likely present with rash or hives, swelling of the lips, face, or tongue, hypotension, or dyspnea. In this scenario, the client is showing signs of anaphylaxis with dyspnea, chest tightness, hives, hypotension, and swelling of the lips and tongue. The next appropriate action would be to administer 0.3 mg of 1:1000 epinephrine intramuscularly. Epinephrine helps relax the muscles of the airway, improve breathing, and increase oxygenation, which is crucial in managing anaphylaxis. Starting an IV and administering fluids can be important but not the immediate priority. Diphenhydramine may be used as an adjunct therapy but should not delay the administration of epinephrine in the acute phase of anaphylaxis. Monitoring the client without providing immediate treatment can lead to a worsening of the anaphylactic reaction, potentially resulting in a life-threatening situation.
2. What would be the most appropriate follow-up by the home care nurse for a 57-year-old male client with a hemoglobin of 10 g/dl and a hematocrit of 32%?
- A. Ask the client if he has noticed any bleeding or dark stools
- B. Tell the client to call 911 and go to the emergency department immediately
- C. Schedule a repeat Hemoglobin and Hematocrit in 1 month
- D. Tell the client to schedule an appointment with a hematologist
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client if he has noticed any bleeding or dark stools. Normal hemoglobin for males is 13.0 - 18 g/dl, and normal hematocrit for males is 42 - 52%. The values of hemoglobin and hematocrit provided for the client are below normal, indicating mild anemia. The first step for the nurse is to inquire about any signs of bleeding or changes in stools that could suggest bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract. This helps in assessing the possible cause of the low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. The other options are not appropriate as calling 911 and going to the emergency department immediately is not warranted for mild anemia, scheduling a repeat test in 1 month delays addressing the current concern, and referring the client to a hematologist may be premature without investigating the cause of the low levels first.
3. The patient with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH) is receiving epoprostenol (Flolan). Which assessment information requires the most immediate action by the nurse?
- A. The oxygen saturation is 94%.
- B. The blood pressure is 98/56 mm Hg.
- C. The patient's central IV line is disconnected.
- D. The international normalized ratio (INR) is prolonged.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most immediate action required by the nurse is to address the disconnected central IV line delivering epoprostenol (Flolan). Epoprostenol has a short half-life of 6 minutes, necessitating immediate reconnection to prevent rapid clinical deterioration. While oxygen saturation, blood pressure, and INR are important parameters requiring monitoring and intervention, the priority lies in ensuring the continuous delivery of the critical medication to stabilize the patient's condition.
4. A man has been taking lisinopril for CHF. The patient is seen in the emergency room for persistent diarrhea. The nurse is concerned about which side effect of lisinopril?
- A. Vertigo
- B. Hypotension
- C. Palpitations
- D. Nagging, dry cough
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypotension.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor commonly used for CHF, can cause hypotension as a side effect. Persistent diarrhea can lead to dehydration, increasing the risk of hypotension in this patient. Vertigo (choice A) is not a typical side effect of lisinopril. Palpitations (choice C) are not directly associated with lisinopril use. A nagging, dry cough (choice D) is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors like lisinopril, but in this case, the patient's presentation with persistent diarrhea would make hypotension a more immediate concern.
5. A patient is getting discharged from a skilled nursing facility (SNF). The patient has a history of severe COPD and PVD. The patient is primarily concerned about his ability to breathe easily. Which of the following would be the best instruction for this patient?
- A. Deep breathing techniques to increase oxygen levels.
- B. Cough regularly and deeply to clear airway passages.
- C. Cough following bronchodilator utilization.
- D. Decrease CO2 levels by increasing oxygen intake during meals.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the patient to cough following bronchodilator utilization. In COPD and PVD patients, bronchodilators help to open up the airways, making coughing more effective in clearing secretions from the lungs. This instruction can aid in improving the patient's ability to breathe by enhancing airway clearance. Deep breathing techniques (Choice A) may help increase oxygen levels but may not directly address the patient's immediate concern of breathing difficulty. Coughing regularly and deeply (Choice B) can be beneficial, but the timing following bronchodilator use is more crucial to maximize its effectiveness. Decreasing CO2 levels by increasing oxygen intake during meals (Choice D) does not directly address the patient's concern about breathing ease or the role of bronchodilators in improving cough effectiveness.
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