Nursing Elites

1. A patient with newly diagnosed lung cancer tells the nurse, 'I don't think I'm going to live to see my next birthday.' Which response by the nurse is best?

• A. Would you like to talk to the hospital chaplain about your feelings?
• B. Can you tell me what it is that makes you think you will die so soon?
• C. Are you afraid that the treatment for your cancer will not be effective?
• D. Do you think that taking an antidepressant medication would be helpful?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's initial response should be to collect more assessment data about the patient's statement. The answer beginning 'Can you tell me what it is' is the most open-ended question and will offer the best opportunity for obtaining more data. The answer beginning 'Are you afraid' implies that the patient thinks that the cancer will be immediately fatal, although the patient's statement may not be related to the cancer diagnosis. The remaining two answers offer interventions that may be helpful to the patient, but more assessment is needed to determine whether these interventions are appropriate.

2. What is the most frequent cause for suicide in adolescents?

• A. Progressive failure to adapt
• B. Feelings of anger or hostility
• C. Reunion wish or fantasy
• D. Feelings of alienation or isolation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Feelings of alienation or isolation are the most frequent cause for suicide in adolescents. Adolescents may experience a gradual isolation leading to a loss of meaningful social contacts, which can be self-imposed or result from an inability to express feelings. During this developmental stage, achieving a sense of identity and peer acceptance is crucial. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: Progressive failure to adapt, feelings of anger or hostility, and reunion wish or fantasy are not typically identified as the primary cause of suicide in adolescents.

3. A patient with a history of diabetes mellitus is on the second postoperative day following cholecystectomy. She has complained of nausea and isn't able to eat solid foods. The nurse enters the room to find the patient confused and shaky. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the patient's symptoms?

• A. Anesthesia reaction
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Diabetic ketoacidosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a postoperative diabetic patient who is unable to eat solid foods, the likely cause of symptoms such as confusion and shakiness is hypoglycemia. Confusion and shakiness are common manifestations of hypoglycemia. Insufficient glucose supply to the brain (neuroglycopenia) can lead to confusion, difficulty with concentration, irritability, hallucinations, focal impairments like hemiplegia, and, in severe cases, coma and death. Anesthesia reaction (Choice A) is less likely in this scenario as the patient is already on the second postoperative day. Hyperglycemia (Choice B) is unlikely given the patient's symptoms and history of not eating. Diabetic ketoacidosis (Choice D) typically presents with hyperglycemia, ketosis, and metabolic acidosis, which are not consistent with the patient's current symptoms of confusion and shakiness.

4. During shift change, a healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's medication. Which of the following medications would be contraindicated if the patient were pregnant?

• A. Warfarin (Coumadin)
• B. Celecoxib (Celebrex)
• C. Clonidine (Catapres)
• D. Transdermal nicotine (Habitrol)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Warfarin (Coumadin) is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its pregnancy category X classification. It is associated with central nervous system defects, spontaneous abortion, stillbirth, prematurity, hemorrhage, and ocular defects when administered at any time during pregnancy. Fetal warfarin syndrome can occur when given during the first trimester. Celecoxib (Celebrex) is a pregnancy category C medication, which means there may be risks but benefits may outweigh them. Clonidine (Catapres) is also a pregnancy category C drug, and while animal studies have shown adverse effects on the fetus, there are limited human studies. Transdermal nicotine (Habitrol) is classified as a pregnancy category D drug, indicating positive evidence of fetal risk, but benefits may still warrant its use in pregnant women with serious conditions.

5. What preparation should be made for a client undergoing a KUB (Kidney, Ureter, Bladder) radiography test?

• A. Client must be NPO before the examination
• B. Enema should be administered before the examination
• C. Medicate the client with furosemide 20 mg IV 30 minutes before the examination
• D. No special orders are necessary for this examination

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that no special orders are necessary for a KUB radiography test. It is important to inform the client to remove any clothing, jewelry, or objects that may interfere with the test. Option A is incorrect because there is no need for the client to be NPO before this examination. Option B is incorrect as enemas are not routinely administered prior to a KUB radiography test. Option C is incorrect as there is no need to medicate the client with furosemide before this examination.

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