Nursing Elites

1. A patient who has a right-sided chest tube following a thoracotomy has continuous bubbling in the suction-control chamber of the collection device. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Document the presence of continuous bubbling.
• B. Notify the surgeon of a possible pneumothorax.
• C. Take no further action with the collection device.
• D. Adjust the dial on the wall regulator to decrease suction.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the suction-control chamber of the chest tube collection device is an expected finding and indicates that the suction control chamber is connected to suction. It does not necessarily indicate a large air leak, which would be detected in the water-seal chamber. There is no evidence to suggest a pneumothorax based solely on continuous bubbling in the suction-control chamber. Adjusting the suction level by changing the wall regulator setting is not indicated in this situation, as the amount of suction applied is primarily regulated by the water level in the water-seal chamber and not by the vacuum source. Therefore, the most appropriate action in this scenario is for the nurse to take no further action with the collection device.

2. During an assessment of a child admitted to the hospital with a probable diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome, what assessment findings should the nurse expect to observe? Select one that applies.

• A. Proteinuria
• B. Weight gain
• C. Decreased serum lipids
• D. Hematuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome, the hallmark finding is massive proteinuria due to increased glomerular permeability. This leads to hypoalbuminemia, resulting in generalized edema. Weight gain, not weight loss, is typically seen due to fluid retention. Serum lipids are elevated, not decreased, in nephrotic syndrome. Hematuria, the presence of blood in the urine, is not a typical finding in nephrotic syndrome.

3. When taking a patient’s history, she mentions being depressed and dealing with an anxiety disorder. Which of the following medications would the patient most likely be taking?

• A. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
• B. Calcitonin
• C. Pergolide mesylate (Permax)
• D. Verapamil (Calan)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Amitriptyline (Elavil) as it is a tricyclic antidepressant commonly used to treat symptoms of depression and anxiety disorders. Amitriptyline works by increasing the levels of certain neurotransmitters in the brain to improve mood. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Calcitonin is a hormone used in the treatment of osteoporosis; Pergolide mesylate is a dopamine agonist used in Parkinson's disease; Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker used to treat high blood pressure and certain heart conditions, not mental health disorders.

4. The clinic nurse is obtaining data about a child with a diagnosis of lactose intolerance. Which data should the nurse expect to obtain on assessment?

• A. Reports of frothy stools and diarrhea
• B. Reports of foul-smelling ribbon stools
• C. Reports of profuse, watery diarrhea and vomiting
• D. Reports of diffuse abdominal pain unrelated to meals or activity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lactose intolerance commonly presents with frothy stools and diarrhea due to the inability to digest lactose. Other symptoms include abdominal distension, crampy abdominal pain, and excessive flatus. Foul-smelling ribbon stools are indicative of Hirschsprung's disease, not lactose intolerance. Profuse, watery diarrhea and vomiting are more characteristic of celiac disease. Diffuse abdominal pain unrelated to meals or activity is a typical symptom of irritable bowel syndrome, not lactose intolerance.

5. Mr. C is brought to the hospital with severe burns over 45% of his body. His heart rate is 124 bpm and thready, BP 84/46, respirations 24/minute and shallow. He is apprehensive and restless. Which of the following types of shock is Mr. C at highest risk for?

• A. Septic shock
• B. Hypovolemic shock
• C. Neurogenic shock
• D. Cardiogenic shock

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Mr. C, who has severe burns over 45% of his body, is at highest risk for hypovolemic shock. Burns lead to a loss of plasma volume, reducing the circulating fluid volume and impairing perfusion to vital organs and extremities. In this scenario, the signs of shock, such as increased heart rate, low blood pressure, shallow respirations, and restlessness, indicate a state of hypovolemic shock due to significant fluid loss. Septic shock (choice A) is primarily caused by severe infections, neurogenic shock (choice C) results from spinal cord injuries, and cardiogenic shock (choice D) stems from heart failure. However, in this case, the presentation aligns most closely with hypovolemic shock due to the extensive burn injury and its effects on fluid volume and perfusion.

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