NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Prioritization Questions
1. A patient who has a right-sided chest tube following a thoracotomy has continuous bubbling in the suction-control chamber of the collection device. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Document the presence of continuous bubbling.
- B. Notify the surgeon of a possible pneumothorax.
- C. Take no further action with the collection device.
- D. Adjust the dial on the wall regulator to decrease suction.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the suction-control chamber of the chest tube collection device is an expected finding and indicates that the suction control chamber is connected to suction. It does not necessarily indicate a large air leak, which would be detected in the water-seal chamber. There is no evidence to suggest a pneumothorax based solely on continuous bubbling in the suction-control chamber. Adjusting the suction level by changing the wall regulator setting is not indicated in this situation, as the amount of suction applied is primarily regulated by the water level in the water-seal chamber and not by the vacuum source. Therefore, the most appropriate action in this scenario is for the nurse to take no further action with the collection device.
2. During an intake screening for a patient with hypertension who has been taking ramipril for 4 weeks, which statement made by the patient would be most important for the nurse to pass on to the physician?
- A. ''I get dizzy when I get out of bed.''
- B. ''I'm urinating much more than I used to.''
- C. ''I've been running on the treadmill for 10 minutes each day.''
- D. ''I can't get rid of this cough.''
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is ''I can't get rid of this cough.'' Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent, dry cough as an adverse effect. This symptom can be indicative of bradykinin accumulation caused by ACE inhibitors. It is important for the nurse to inform the physician about this side effect so that a medication change to another class of antihypertensives, such as an ARB, may be considered. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the common adverse effects of ramipril and are not as concerning for a patient on this medication.
3. A 23-year-old has been admitted with acute liver failure. Which assessment data are most important for the nurse to communicate to the healthcare provider?
- A. Asterixis and lethargy
- B. Jaundiced sclera and skin
- C. Elevated total bilirubin level
- D. Liver 3 cm below costal margin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most critical assessment data for the nurse to communicate to the healthcare provider in a patient with acute liver failure are asterixis and lethargy. These findings are indicative of grade 2 hepatic encephalopathy, which signals a rapid deterioration in the patient's condition, necessitating early transfer to a transplant center. Jaundiced sclera and skin, elevated total bilirubin level, and a liver 3 cm below the costal margin are all typical findings in hepatic failure but do not indicate an immediate need for a change in the therapeutic plan. Therefore, while these findings are relevant and should be reported, they are not as urgent as asterixis and lethargy in a patient with acute liver failure.
4. What is the likely cause of pericarditis in a young patient?
- A. Heart failure
- B. Acute MI
- C. Hypertension
- D. Infectious processes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In younger patients, pericarditis is typically caused by an infection commonly triggered by viruses like the Coxsackie virus, streptococcus, staphylococcus, or Haemophilus influenzae. Infectious processes are the leading cause of pericarditis in younger individuals. Heart failure, Acute MI, and Hypertension are not common causes of pericarditis in young patients. In older adults, acute myocardial infarction (MI) is a more common cause of pericarditis.
5. Following a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) in their 6-year-old child, the parent's remark: "We just don't know how he caught the disease!"? The nurse's response is based on an understanding that:
- A. AGN is a streptococcal infection that involves the kidney tubules.
- B. The disease is easily transmissible in schools and camps.
- C. The illness is usually associated with chronic respiratory infections.
- D. It is not "caught"? but is a response to a previous B-hemolytic strep infection.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is that acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) is not 'caught' but is a response to a previous B-hemolytic strep infection. AGN is generally accepted as an immune-complex disease triggered by an antecedent streptococcal infection occurring 4 to 6 weeks prior. It is considered a noninfectious renal disease. Choice A is incorrect because AGN is not a streptococcal infection that involves the kidney tubules but rather a noninfectious renal disease. Choice B is incorrect as AGN is not easily transmissible in schools and camps but is a result of a previous streptococcal infection. Choice C is incorrect as AGN is not usually associated with chronic respiratory infections, but with a previous streptococcal infection.
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