NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Questions
1. Which of the following interventions should the nurse use when working with a Jackson-Pratt drain?
- A. Strip the tubing to remove clots by milking the tubing back toward the client
- B. Empty the drain when the amount of fluid reaches 25 cc
- C. Strip the tubing to remove clots by milking the tubing away from the client
- D. Maintain the level of the drain above the client's incision
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A Jackson-Pratt drain is a type of active wound drain that may be placed following a surgical procedure. This drain actively draws excess blood and fluid out of the wound. If clots develop within the tubing, the nurse should strip the tubing by milking it in a direction away from the client. This action helps to ensure the drain remains patent and effective. Option A is incorrect because the tubing should be milked away from the client, not towards. Option B is incorrect as the drain should be emptied based on the healthcare provider's orders, not at a fixed volume. Option D is incorrect because the level of the drain should be below the level of the incision to allow drainage by gravity.
2. A patient in metabolic alkalosis is admitted to the emergency department, and pulse oximetry indicates that the O2 saturation is 94%. Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Administer bicarbonate.
- B. Complete a head-to-toe assessment.
- C. Place the patient on high-flow oxygen.
- D. Obtain repeat arterial blood gases (ABGs).
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a patient with metabolic alkalosis and an O2 saturation of 94%, placing the patient on high-flow oxygen is the correct action. Even though the O2 saturation seems adequate, metabolic alkalosis causes a left shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve, reducing oxygen delivery to tissues. Therefore, providing high-flow oxygen can help compensate for this. Administering bicarbonate would exacerbate the alkalosis. While completing a head-to-toe assessment and obtaining repeat ABGs are important interventions, the priority in this scenario is to improve oxygen delivery by placing the patient on high-flow oxygen.
3. A patient has been diagnosed with acute gastritis in a clinic. Which of the following medications would be contraindicated for this patient?
- A. Naproxen sodium (Naprosyn)
- B. Calcium carbonate
- C. Clarithromycin (Biaxin)
- D. Furosemide (Lasix)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Naproxen sodium is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that can cause inflammation of the upper GI tract. For this reason, it is contraindicated in a patient with gastritis. Gastritis involves inflammation of the stomach lining, and medications like Naproxen can exacerbate this condition. Calcium carbonate is an antacid that can help neutralize stomach acid and may actually provide relief for gastritis symptoms. Clarithromycin is an antibiotic used to treat H. pylori infection, a common cause of gastritis. Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to treat conditions like edema and hypertension, not directly contraindicated in gastritis.
4. A patient is admitted and complains of gastric pain, fever, and diarrhea. Which assessment finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Abdominal distention
- B. A bruit near the epigastric area
- C. 3 episodes of vomiting in the last hour
- D. Blood pressure of 160/90
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A bruit near the epigastric area may indicate the presence of an aortic aneurysm, which is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate medical attention. Abdominal distention, while concerning, may not be as urgent as a potential aneurysm. Vomiting episodes may suggest underlying issues but do not present an immediate life-threatening situation. A blood pressure of 160/90, though elevated, does not pose the same level of immediate threat as a potential aortic aneurysm.
5. A female patient is prescribed metformin for glucose control. The patient is on NPO status pending a diagnostic test. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of metformin?
- A. Diarrhea and Vomiting
- B. Dizziness and Drowsiness
- C. Metallic taste
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypoglycemia.' When a patient is on NPO status (nothing by mouth) and prescribed metformin, there is an increased risk of hypoglycemia due to the absence of oral intake. Metformin, as an anti-glycemic drug, can lower blood sugar levels, and without food intake, the risk of hypoglycemia is higher. Diarrhea and vomiting are common gastrointestinal side effects of metformin but are not the main concern in this scenario. Dizziness and drowsiness are potential side effects of some medications but are not typically associated with metformin. Metallic taste is a known side effect of metformin but is not the primary concern in this situation where hypoglycemia is more critical to monitor due to the patient's NPO status.
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