NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. The nurse is performing a neurological assessment on a client post right cerebrovascular accident. Which finding, if observed by the nurse, would warrant immediate attention?
- A. Decrease in level of consciousness
- B. Loss of bladder control
- C. Altered sensation to stimuli
- D. Emotional lability
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A decrease in the level of consciousness is a critical finding that would warrant immediate attention in a client post right cerebrovascular accident. This change may indicate an increase in intracranial pressure, leading to inadequate oxygenation of the brain. It could also reveal the presence of a transient ischemic attack, which may signal an impending thrombotic cerebrovascular accident. Loss of bladder control (choice B) can be managed and monitored but does not indicate an immediate threat to the client's life. Altered sensation to stimuli (choice C) can be a concerning finding but may not require immediate attention unless it affects the client's safety. Emotional lability (choice D) may be distressing for the client but does not pose an immediate risk to their health compared to a decrease in the level of consciousness.
2. The parents of a newborn male with hypospadias want their child circumcised. The best response by the nurse is to inform them that
- A. Circumcision is delayed so the foreskin can be used for the surgical repair
- B. This procedure is contraindicated because of the permanent defect
- C. There is no medical indication for performing a circumcision on any child
- D. The procedure should be performed as soon as the infant is stable
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Circumcision is delayed so the foreskin can be used for the surgical repair. Even if mild hypospadias is suspected, circumcision is not done to save the foreskin for surgical repair if needed. Choice B is incorrect because circumcision is not contraindicated due to a permanent defect; it is delayed for potential surgical needs. Choice C is incorrect as there are situations where a circumcision may be indicated for medical or cultural reasons. Choice D is incorrect because circumcision for hypospadias-related repair is not done immediately but rather delayed to preserve the foreskin for potential reconstructive surgery.
3. While receiving normal saline infusions to treat a GI bleed, the nurse notes that the patient's lower legs have become edematous and auscultates crackles in the lungs. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Stop the saline infusion immediately
- B. Notify the physician
- C. Elevate the patient's legs
- D. Continue the infusion, as these findings are normal
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to stop the saline infusion immediately. The patient is showing signs of fluid volume overload due to rapid fluid replacement, indicated by lower leg edema and lung crackles. Continuing the infusion could worsen the overload and potentially lead to complications. Notifying the physician is important but should come after stopping the infusion to address the immediate issue. Elevating the patient's legs may help with edema but is not the priority in this situation. Continuing the infusion when the patient is already showing signs of fluid overload is contraindicated and can be harmful.
4. The nurse has just admitted a client with severe depression. From which focus should the nurse identify a priority nursing diagnosis?
- A. Nutrition
- B. Elimination
- C. Activity
- D. Safety
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In caring for a client with severe depression, safety is a critical priority. The nurse must address precautions to prevent suicide as part of the care plan. While nutrition, elimination, and activity are important aspects of care, safety takes precedence due to the immediate risk of harm associated with depression. Ensuring the client's safety by implementing measures to prevent self-harm or suicide is the priority intervention. Addressing nutrition, elimination, and activity can follow once the client's safety is assured.
5. Which of the following clients is most appropriate for receiving telemetry?
- A. A client with syncope potentially related to cardiac dysrhythmia
- B. A client with unstable angina
- C. A client with sinus rhythm and PVCs
- D. A client who had a myocardial infarction 6 hours ago
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Telemetry is used to monitor the cardiac rhythms of clients with potentially unstable conditions or those rhythms that affect activities. Clients with syncope potentially related to cardiac dysrhythmia require continuous monitoring to detect any potential life-threatening dysrhythmias. Unstable angina can be monitored in a telemetry unit, but syncope with potential cardiac causes takes precedence. Clients with sinus rhythm and PVCs may not necessitate telemetry unless there are further indications of instability. A client who had a myocardial infarction 6 hours ago is typically monitored in an intensive care unit rather than a telemetry unit.
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