Nursing Elites

1. A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism. A nurse checking the patient's lab results would expect which of the following changes in laboratory findings?

• A. Elevated serum calcium
• B. Low serum parathyroid hormone (PTH)
• C. Elevated serum vitamin D
• D. Low urine calcium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In primary hyperparathyroidism, there is excess secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH) leading to increased resorption of calcium from bones and decreased excretion of calcium by the kidneys. This results in elevated serum calcium levels. Elevated serum calcium is a hallmark characteristic of primary hyperparathyroidism, making it the correct answer. Low serum parathyroid hormone (PTH) (Choice B) is incorrect because primary hyperparathyroidism is associated with elevated PTH levels due to the malfunction of the parathyroid glands. Elevated serum vitamin D (Choice C) is incorrect because primary hyperparathyroidism is not typically associated with elevated vitamin D levels. Low urine calcium (Choice D) is incorrect as primary hyperparathyroidism leads to decreased calcium excretion by the kidneys, resulting in high levels of calcium in the urine.

2. A patient with pneumonia has a fever of 101.4 F (38.6 C), a nonproductive cough, and an oxygen saturation of 88%. The patient complains of weakness, fatigue, and needs assistance to get out of bed. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse assign as the highest priority?

• A. Hyperthermia related to infectious illness
• B. Impaired transfer ability related to weakness
• C. Ineffective airway clearance related to thick secretions
• D. Impaired gas exchange related to respiratory congestion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Impaired gas exchange related to respiratory congestion.' While all the nursing diagnoses are relevant to the patient's condition, the priority should be given to impaired gas exchange due to the patient's low oxygen saturation level of 88%. This indicates a significant risk of hypoxia for all body tissues unless the gas exchange is improved. Addressing impaired gas exchange is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation and prevent further complications. Hyperthermia, impaired transfer ability, and ineffective airway clearance are important concerns but addressing gas exchange takes precedence in this scenario.

3. When assessing a child admitted to the hospital with pyloric stenosis, which symptom would the nurse likely find when asking the parent about the child's symptoms?

• A. Watery diarrhea
• B. Projectile vomiting
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Vomiting large amounts of bile

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In pyloric stenosis, hypertrophy of the circular muscles of the pylorus causes narrowing of the pyloric canal between the stomach and the duodenum. The hallmark symptom of pyloric stenosis is projectile vomiting, which is the forceful expulsion of stomach contents. Other common symptoms include irritability, hunger and crying, constipation, and signs of dehydration. Watery diarrhea (Choice A) is not a typical symptom of pyloric stenosis. Increased urine output (Choice C) is not directly associated with this condition. Vomiting large amounts of bile (Choice D) is not a characteristic symptom of pyloric stenosis; instead, the vomitus in pyloric stenosis is non-bilious.

4. Following mitral valve replacement surgery, a client develops PVCs. The healthcare provider orders a bolus of Lidocaine followed by a continuous Lidocaine infusion at a rate of 2 mg/minute. The IV solution contains 2 grams of Lidocaine in 500 mL of D5W. The infusion pump delivers 60 microdrops/mL. What rate would deliver 4 mg of Lidocaine per minute?

• A. 60 microdrops/minute
• B. 20 microdrops/minute
• C. 30 microdrops/minute
• D. 40 microdrops/minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the rate needed to deliver 4 mg/minute of Lidocaine, first, convert 2 grams to milligrams: 2 grams = 2000 mg. Then, set up a ratio between the total amount of Lidocaine (2000 mg) and the total volume of IV solution (500 mL): 2000 mg / 500 mL = 4 mg / x mL. Solving for x, x = 1 mL. Since the infusion pump delivers 60 microdrops per mL, multiplying by 60 microdrops/mL gives the correct rate of 60 microdrops/minute. This rate ensures the desired 4 mg of Lidocaine is delivered per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the accurate calculation based on the provided information.

5. While taking the health history of a 70-year-old patient being treated for a Duodenal Ulcer, the nurse learns that the patient is complaining of epigastric pain. What assessment finding would the nurse expect to note?

• A. Melena
• B. Nausea
• C. Hernia
• D. Hyperthermia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Melena is the passage of black, tarry stools due to the presence of blood in the gastrointestinal tract, usually originating from the upper digestive system. In the context of a Duodenal Ulcer, melena can occur as a result of bleeding in the duodenum or the upper part of the small intestine. This finding is significant as it indicates potential gastrointestinal bleeding, which is a common complication of duodenal ulcers. Nausea (Choice B) is a nonspecific symptom that may be present with various gastrointestinal conditions but is not specific to duodenal ulcers. Hernia (Choice C) involves the protrusion of an organ through the wall of the cavity that normally contains it and is not directly related to the symptoms of a duodenal ulcer. Hyperthermia (Choice D), which refers to an elevated body temperature, is not typically associated with duodenal ulcers unless there are severe complications present.

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