NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism. A nurse checking the patient's lab results would expect which of the following changes in laboratory findings?
- A. Elevated serum calcium
- B. Low serum parathyroid hormone (PTH)
- C. Elevated serum vitamin D
- D. Low urine calcium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In primary hyperparathyroidism, there is excess secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH) leading to increased resorption of calcium from bones and decreased excretion of calcium by the kidneys. This results in elevated serum calcium levels. Elevated serum calcium is a hallmark characteristic of primary hyperparathyroidism, making it the correct answer. Low serum parathyroid hormone (PTH) (Choice B) is incorrect because primary hyperparathyroidism is associated with elevated PTH levels due to the malfunction of the parathyroid glands. Elevated serum vitamin D (Choice C) is incorrect because primary hyperparathyroidism is not typically associated with elevated vitamin D levels. Low urine calcium (Choice D) is incorrect as primary hyperparathyroidism leads to decreased calcium excretion by the kidneys, resulting in high levels of calcium in the urine.
2. In which of the following conditions would a healthcare provider not administer erythromycin?
- A. Campylobacteriosis infection
- B. Legionnaires disease
- C. Pneumonia
- D. Multiple Sclerosis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Erythromycin is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections. Multiple sclerosis (MS) is an autoimmune disease affecting the central nervous system, involving the brain and spinal cord. Since MS is not caused by bacteria, administering erythromycin would not be appropriate. Campylobacteriosis infection, Legionnaires disease, and pneumonia are bacterial infections that can be treated with erythromycin, making them incorrect choices for conditions where erythromycin would not be administered.
3. The nurse reviews the record of a newborn infant and notes that a diagnosis of esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula is suspected. The nurse expects to note which most likely sign of this condition documented in the record?
- A. Incessant crying
- B. Coughing at nighttime
- C. Choking with feedings
- D. Severe projectile vomiting
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula, the esophagus ends before it reaches the stomach, forming a blind pouch, and there is an abnormal connection (fistula) with the trachea. Any child who exhibits the '3 Cs'"?coughing and choking with feedings and unexplained cyanosis"?should be suspected to have tracheoesophageal fistula. Option A, 'Incessant crying,' is not a typical sign of esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula. Option B, 'Coughing at nighttime,' is not a specific sign associated with this condition. Option D, 'Severe projectile vomiting,' is not a common sign of esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula.
4. The patient in the emergency room has a history of alprazolam (Xanax) abuse and abruptly stopped taking Xanax about 24 hours ago. He presents with visible tremors, pacing, fear, impaired concentration, and memory. Which intervention takes priority?
- A. Have the patient lie down on a stretcher with bed rails raised
- B. Offer the patient a cup of water and a small amount of food
- C. Reassure the patient about his well-being
- D. Inform the physician about the patient's Xanax withdrawal
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The 1-4 day period after Xanax withdrawal is critical as it poses the highest risk of life-threatening seizures. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine, and sudden cessation can lead to severe withdrawal symptoms. The patient's visible tremors, fear, pacing, and cognitive impairment indicate a state of heightened distress and potential seizure risk. Placing the patient on a stretcher with raised bed rails is essential for seizure precautions, ensuring safety and preventing injury during a potential seizure. Offering water and food, reassuring the patient, or informing the physician about Xanax withdrawal are not immediate priorities compared to managing the risk of seizures in this high-risk situation.
5. A patient who has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) was hospitalized for increasing shortness of breath and chronic hypoxemia (SaO2 levels of 89% to 90%). In planning for discharge, which action by the nurse will be most effective in improving compliance with discharge teaching?
- A. Start giving the patient discharge teaching on the day of discharge
- B. Have the patient repeat the instructions immediately after teaching
- C. Accomplish the patient teaching just before the scheduled discharge
- D. Arrange for the patient's caregiver to be present during the teaching
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hypoxemia interferes with the patient's ability to learn and retain information, so having the patient's caregiver present will increase the likelihood that discharge instructions will be followed. Having the patient repeat the instructions will indicate that the information is understood at the time, but it does not guarantee retention of the information. Giving discharge instructions just before discharge is not ideal as the patient is likely to be distracted and anxious at that time. Teaching the patient about discharge on the day of admission is not recommended because the patient may be more hypoxemic and anxious than usual, making it difficult for them to absorb and retain the information effectively. Therefore, arranging for the patient's caregiver to be present during the teaching session is the best option to ensure proper compliance and understanding of the discharge instructions.
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