NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism. A nurse checking the patient's lab results would expect which of the following changes in laboratory findings?
- A. Elevated serum calcium
- B. Low serum parathyroid hormone (PTH)
- C. Elevated serum vitamin D
- D. Low urine calcium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In primary hyperparathyroidism, there is excess secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH) leading to increased resorption of calcium from bones and decreased excretion of calcium by the kidneys. This results in elevated serum calcium levels. Elevated serum calcium is a hallmark characteristic of primary hyperparathyroidism, making it the correct answer. Low serum parathyroid hormone (PTH) (Choice B) is incorrect because primary hyperparathyroidism is associated with elevated PTH levels due to the malfunction of the parathyroid glands. Elevated serum vitamin D (Choice C) is incorrect because primary hyperparathyroidism is not typically associated with elevated vitamin D levels. Low urine calcium (Choice D) is incorrect as primary hyperparathyroidism leads to decreased calcium excretion by the kidneys, resulting in high levels of calcium in the urine.
2. Clinical manifestations of asthma include:
- A. Decreased expiratory time
- B. Increased peak expiratory flow
- C. Increased use of accessory muscles
- D. Increased oxygen saturation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clinical manifestations of asthma include increased use of accessory muscles, increased expiratory time, increased peak expiratory flow, and decreased oxygen saturation. Choice A, 'Decreased expiratory time,' is incorrect because asthma typically presents with increased expiratory time due to airway obstruction. Choice B, 'Increased peak expiratory flow,' is incorrect as asthma commonly leads to decreased peak expiratory flow due to airway constriction. Choice D, 'Increased oxygen saturation,' is incorrect because asthma exacerbations often result in decreased oxygen saturation levels.
3. A man has been taking lisinopril for CHF. The patient is seen in the emergency room for persistent diarrhea. The nurse is concerned about which side effect of lisinopril?
- A. Vertigo
- B. Hypotension
- C. Palpitations
- D. Nagging, dry cough
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypotension.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor commonly used for CHF, can cause hypotension as a side effect. Persistent diarrhea can lead to dehydration, increasing the risk of hypotension in this patient. Vertigo (choice A) is not a typical side effect of lisinopril. Palpitations (choice C) are not directly associated with lisinopril use. A nagging, dry cough (choice D) is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors like lisinopril, but in this case, the patient's presentation with persistent diarrhea would make hypotension a more immediate concern.
4. Diabetic patients are more prone to ____________ than other people without this chronic disorder.
- A. infection
- B. increased oxygen saturation
- C. low fibrinogen
- D. constipation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Diabetic patients are more prone to infection than other people without this chronic disorder. Diabetes weakens the immune system and impairs the body's ability to fight off infections, making individuals with diabetes more susceptible to various types of infections. Increased oxygen saturation, low fibrinogen, and constipation are not directly related to diabetes or the increased infection risk associated with the condition. Increased oxygen saturation is actually a positive health indicator, low fibrinogen levels are not a common issue in diabetes, and constipation is not a primary concern when comparing diabetic patients to others without the condition.
5. The healthcare provider is managing a 20 lbs (9 kg) 6-month-old with a 3-day history of diarrhea, occasional vomiting, and fever. Peripheral intravenous therapy has been initiated, with 5% dextrose in 0.33% normal saline with 20 mEq of potassium per liter infusing at 35 ml/hr. Which finding should be immediately reported to the healthcare provider?
- A. 3 episodes of vomiting in 1 hour.
- B. Periodic crying and irritability.
- C. Vigorous sucking on a pacifier.
- D. No measurable voiding in 4 hours.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The critical finding that should be reported immediately to the healthcare provider is 'No measurable voiding in 4 hours.' This finding raises concerns about possible hyperkalemia, which can result from continued potassium administration and a decrease in urinary output. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious complications, including cardiac arrhythmias. The management of acute hyperkalemia involves interventions such as administering calcium to protect the heart, shifting potassium into cells, and enhancing potassium elimination from the body. The other choices do not indicate an urgent issue that requires immediate attention. Three episodes of vomiting in 1 hour can be concerning but may not be as immediately critical as the risk of hyperkalemia. Periodic crying and irritability are common in infants and may not indicate a severe complication. Vigorous sucking on a pacifier is a normal behavior in infants and does not signal a medical emergency.
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