Nursing Elites

1. A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism. A nurse checking the patient's lab results would expect which of the following changes in laboratory findings?

• A. Elevated serum calcium
• B. Low serum parathyroid hormone (PTH)
• C. Elevated serum vitamin D
• D. Low urine calcium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In primary hyperparathyroidism, there is excess secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH) leading to increased resorption of calcium from bones and decreased excretion of calcium by the kidneys. This results in elevated serum calcium levels. Elevated serum calcium is a hallmark characteristic of primary hyperparathyroidism, making it the correct answer. Low serum parathyroid hormone (PTH) (Choice B) is incorrect because primary hyperparathyroidism is associated with elevated PTH levels due to the malfunction of the parathyroid glands. Elevated serum vitamin D (Choice C) is incorrect because primary hyperparathyroidism is not typically associated with elevated vitamin D levels. Low urine calcium (Choice D) is incorrect as primary hyperparathyroidism leads to decreased calcium excretion by the kidneys, resulting in high levels of calcium in the urine.

2. When auscultating the patient's lungs during a shift assessment on a patient admitted in the early phase of heart failure, which finding would the nurse most likely hear?

• A. Continuous rumbling, snoring, or rattling sounds mainly on expiration
• B. Continuous high-pitched musical sounds on inspiration and expiration
• C. Discontinuous, high-pitched sounds of short duration heard on inspiration
• D. A series of long-duration, discontinuous, low-pitched sounds during inspiration

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the early phase of heart failure, fine crackles are likely to be heard upon auscultation of the lungs. Fine crackles are characterized as discontinuous, high-pitched sounds of short duration heard on inspiration. Rhonchi are continuous rumbling, snoring, or rattling sounds mainly on expiration, which are often associated with airway secretions. Coarse crackles are a series of long-duration, discontinuous, low-pitched sounds during inspiration, typically indicating fluid in the alveoli. Wheezes are continuous high-pitched musical sounds on inspiration and expiration, commonly heard in conditions like asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Therefore, the correct choice is C, as it describes the expected lung sounds in a patient with early heart failure.

3. What is the priority nursing diagnosis for a patient experiencing a migraine headache?

• A. Acute pain related to biologic and chemical factors
• B. Anxiety related to change in or threat to health status
• C. Hopelessness related to deteriorating physiological condition
• D. Risk for side effects related to medical therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a patient experiencing a migraine headache is 'Acute pain related to biologic and chemical factors.' Migraine headaches are characterized by severe throbbing pain, often accompanied by sensitivity to light and sound. Addressing the acute pain is crucial to improve the patient's comfort and quality of life. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority nursing diagnoses for a patient with a migraine headache. Anxiety, hopelessness, and risk for side effects may not be as urgent as managing the acute pain associated with a migraine.

4. A 53-year-old patient is being treated for bleeding esophageal varices with balloon tamponade. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care?

• A. Instruct the patient to cough every hour
• B. Monitor the patient for shortness of breath
• C. Verify the position of the balloon every 4 hours
• D. Deflate the gastric balloon if the patient reports nausea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct nursing action for a patient with balloon tamponade for bleeding esophageal varices is to monitor the patient for shortness of breath. The most common complication of balloon tamponade is aspiration pneumonia. Additionally, if the gastric balloon ruptures, the esophageal balloon may slip upward and occlude the airway. Instructing the patient to cough every hour is incorrect as coughing increases the pressure on the varices and raises the risk of bleeding. Verifying the position of the balloon every 4 hours is unnecessary as it is typically done after insertion. Deflating the gastric balloon if the patient reports nausea is incorrect because deflating it may cause the esophageal balloon to occlude the airway, leading to complications. Therefore, monitoring for signs of respiratory distress is crucial in this situation.

5. Application - The nurse is caring for a patient who has the following labs: Creatinine 2.5mg/dL, WBC 11,000 cells/mL, and Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL. Based on this information, which of these orders would the nurse question?

• A. Administer 30 Units of Lantus Daily
• B. CT of the spine with contrast
• C. X-ray of the abdomen and chest
• D. Administer heparin subcutaneously 5,000 Units every 12 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to question the order for a CT of the spine with contrast. The patient's elevated creatinine level of 2.5mg/dL indicates impaired kidney function. Contrast agents are nephrotoxic and can further compromise kidney function in patients with existing nephropathy. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid contrast-enhanced imaging studies in patients with impaired renal function. Choice A: Administering 30 Units of Lantus Daily is not contraindicated based on the provided lab values. Choice C: Ordering an X-ray of the abdomen and chest is not contraindicated based on the provided lab values. Choice D: Administering heparin subcutaneously at 5,000 Units every 12 hours is not contraindicated based on the provided lab values.

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