NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. Which of these clients is likely to receive sublingual morphine?
- A. A 75-year-old woman in a hospice program
- B. A 40-year-old man who just had throat surgery
- C. A 20-year-old woman with trigeminal neuralgia
- D. A 60-year-old man who has a painful incision
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is a 75-year-old woman in a hospice program. Sublingual morphine is commonly used in hospice care because patients may have difficulty swallowing, and intravenous access can be uncomfortable and not ideal for palliative care. Choice B, a 40-year-old man who just had throat surgery, is less likely to receive sublingual morphine as he may be able to swallow, and other pain management options may be more suitable. Choice C, a 20-year-old woman with trigeminal neuralgia, would typically require specific medications targeting neuropathic pain rather than sublingual morphine. Choice D, a 60-year-old man with a painful incision, may benefit from localized pain relief or other systemic pain management options, but sublingual morphine is not usually the first choice for this type of pain.
2. The nurse is taking the health history of a patient being treated for Emphysema and Chronic Bronchitis. After being told the patient has been smoking cigarettes for 30 years, the nurse expects to note which assessment finding?
- A. Increase in Forced Vital Capacity (FVC)
- B. A widened chest cavity
- C. Clubbed fingers
- D. An increased risk of cardiac failure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: 1. Increase in Forced Vital Capacity (FVC): Forced Vital Capacity is the volume of air exhaled from full inhalation to full exhalation. A patient with COPD would have a decrease in FVC. Therefore, this choice is incorrect. 2. A widened chest cavity: A patient with COPD often presents with a 'barrel chest,' which is seen as a widened chest cavity. Hence, a narrowed chest cavity is not an expected finding. 3. Clubbed fingers - CORRECT: Clubbed fingers are a sign of a long-term, or chronic, decrease in oxygen levels, which is commonly seen in patients with chronic respiratory conditions like Emphysema and Chronic Bronchitis. 4. An increased risk of cardiac failure: Although a patient with these conditions would indeed be at an increased risk for cardiac failure, this is a potential complication and not an assessment finding, making it an incorrect choice.
3. A healthcare provider is assessing vital signs in pediatric patients. Which of the following vital signs is abnormal?
- A. 11-year-old male: 90 BPM, 22 RPM, 100/70 mmHg
- B. 13-year-old female: 105 BPM, 22 RPM, 105/50 mmHg
- C. 5-year-old male: 102 BPM, 24 RPM, 90/65 mmHg
- D. 6-year-old female: 100 BPM, 26 RPM, 90/70 mmHg
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The normal range of vital signs for pediatric patients varies with age. For 11 to 14-year-olds, the normal vital sign ranges are: Heart rate: 60-105 BPM; Respiratory rate: 12-20 RPM; Blood pressure: Systolic 85-120 mmHg, Diastolic 55-80 mmHg. The 13-year-old female in choice B has a diastolic blood pressure below the normal range, indicating hypotension. Additionally, her heart rate is at the upper limit of normal, and her respiratory rate is within normal limits. Choices A, C, and D all fall within the normal ranges for vital signs in pediatric patients.
4. The healthcare professional in the Emergency Room is treating a patient suspected to have a Peptic Ulcer. On assessing lab results, the healthcare professional finds that the patient's blood pressure is 95/60, pulse is 110 beats per minute, and the patient reports epigastric pain. What is the PRIORITY intervention?
- A. Start a large-bore IV in the patient's arm
- B. Ask the patient for a stool sample
- C. Prepare to insert an NG Tube
- D. Administer intramuscular morphine sulfate as ordered
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority intervention in this scenario is to start a large-bore IV in the patient's arm. The patient's low blood pressure (95/60) and elevated pulse rate (110 beats per minute) indicate a potential hemorrhage, requiring immediate fluid resuscitation. Starting a large-bore IV will allow for rapid administration of fluids to stabilize the patient's condition. Asking for a stool sample, preparing to insert an NG tube, or administering morphine sulfate should not take precedence over addressing the hemodynamic instability and potential hemorrhage observed in the patient. These actions may be considered later in the patient's care, but the primary focus should be on addressing the critical issue of fluid replacement and stabilization.
5. A 4-year-old child with acute glomerulonephritis is admitted to the hospital. The nurse identifies which client problem in the plan of care as the priority?
- A. Infection related to hypertension
- B. Injury related to loss of blood in urine
- C. Excessive fluid volume related to decreased plasma filtration
- D. Retarded growth and development related to a chronic disease
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In acute glomerulonephritis, the child experiences excessive accumulation of water and retention of sodium, leading to circulatory congestion and edema. Excessive fluid volume is a primary concern due to the disease process. Hypertension and infection are not directly related to acute glomerulonephritis; therefore, they are not the priority client problems. While hematuria (blood in urine) may occur, it typically does not lead to significant injury that takes precedence over excessive fluid volume. Acute glomerulonephritis is an acute condition, not chronic; therefore, retarded growth and development related to a chronic disease is not the priority issue. With proper management, most children recover completely without long-term growth and development issues.
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