NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Prioritization Questions
1. A patient with a possible pulmonary embolism complains of chest pain and difficulty breathing. The nurse finds a heart rate of 142 beats/minute, blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, and respirations of 42 breaths/minute. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer anticoagulant drug therapy.
- B. Notify the patient's healthcare provider.
- C. Prepare the patient for a spiral computed tomography (CT).
- D. Elevate the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler's position.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The patient presents with symptoms indicative of a pulmonary embolism (PE), such as chest pain, difficulty breathing, tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea. Elevating the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler's position is the priority to improve ventilation and gas exchange. This intervention should be initiated promptly to optimize oxygenation. Subsequent actions, such as notifying the healthcare provider, preparing for a spiral CT scan, and administering anticoagulant therapy, can follow after the patient's position is adjusted. The spiral CT scan is typically used to confirm the diagnosis of PE, and anticoagulant therapy is initiated upon confirmation of the diagnosis by the healthcare provider. Therefore, the immediate focus is on improving the patient's respiratory status by elevating the head of the bed.
2. A patient scheduled for cataract surgery asks the nurse why they developed cataracts and how to prevent it in the future. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. Age is the biggest factor contributing to cataracts.
- B. Unprotected exposure to UV lights can cause cataracts.
- C. Age, eye injury, corticosteroids, and unprotected sunlight exposure are contributing factors to cataracts.
- D. Unfortunately, there is really nothing you can do to prevent cataracts, but they are amongst the most easily treated eye conditions.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Age, eye injury, corticosteroids, and unprotected sunlight exposure are contributing factors to cataracts.' This response is the best choice as it covers the most common contributing factors for cataracts and includes preventable risk factors. Choice A is incorrect because while age is a significant factor in cataract development, it is not the only one. Choice B is incorrect as UV light exposure is a risk factor for cataracts but not the most comprehensive response. Choice D is incorrect as there are preventive measures individuals can take to reduce their risk of developing cataracts, such as protecting their eyes from UV light and managing other risk factors.
3. A 23-year-old woman is admitted to the infusion clinic after a Multiple Sclerosis exacerbation. The physician orders methylprednisolone infusions (Solu-Medrol). The nurse would expect which of the following outcomes after administration of this medication?
- A. A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements
- B. A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis-related plaques
- C. A decrease in the length of the exacerbation
- D. A stabilization of mood and sleep
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Methylprednisolone infusion is the first-line treatment during an acute exacerbation of Multiple Sclerosis. It is used to decrease the length and severity of a relapse by reducing inflammation in the central nervous system. Choice A, 'A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements,' is incorrect because methylprednisolone primarily targets inflammation and does not directly address muscle spasticity. Choice B, 'A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis-related plaques,' is incorrect as methylprednisolone is not used to slow the progression of the disease but rather to manage acute exacerbations. Choice D, 'A stabilization of mood and sleep,' is not an expected outcome of methylprednisolone administration for Multiple Sclerosis exacerbation as it primarily targets the inflammatory process associated with the relapse.
4. The parents of a newborn have been told that their child was born with bladder exstrophy, and the parents ask the nurse about this condition. Which explanation, given by the parents, indicates understanding of this condition?
- A. ''It's a hereditary disorder that occurs in every other generation.''
- B. ''It is caused by the use of medications taken by the mother during pregnancy.''
- C. ''It is a condition in which the urinary bladder is abnormally located in the pelvic cavity.''
- D. ''It's an extrusion of the urinary bladder to the outside of the body through a defect in the lower abdominal wall.''
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Bladder exstrophy is a congenital anomaly characterized by the extrusion of the urinary bladder to the outside of the body through a defect in the lower abdominal wall. The cause of bladder exstrophy is not precisely known, but it is believed to be due to a developmental abnormality during embryogenesis. The condition is more common in male newborns. Choice A is incorrect as bladder exstrophy is not a hereditary disorder that occurs in every other generation. Choice B is incorrect as bladder exstrophy is not caused by medications taken by the mother during pregnancy. Choice C is incorrect as it describes the condition inaccurately; it is not just an abnormal location of the bladder in the pelvic cavity, but rather an extrusion of the bladder outside the body through a defect in the lower abdominal wall.
5. An 80-year-old patient is admitted with dyspnea, dependent edema, rales, and distended neck veins. As the nurse monitors the patient, he becomes increasingly short of breath and begins to have cardiac dysrhythmias. The most critical intervention for this patient is to:
- A. Ensure his airway is open and unobstructed.
- B. Apply oxygen to maintain his oxygen saturation above 94%.
- C. Administer Dobutamine to increase cardiac output.
- D. Start an IV for monitoring fluid intake.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a patient presenting with dyspnea, dependent edema, rales, distended neck veins, and developing cardiac dysrhythmias, the priority intervention is to ensure the airway is open and unobstructed. Maintaining an open airway is crucial for adequate ventilation and oxygenation, especially in a patient showing signs of impending respiratory distress and cardiac compromise. While applying oxygen to maintain oxygen saturation is important, ensuring airway patency takes precedence as it directly impacts the patient's ability to breathe. Administering Dobutamine may be necessary to improve cardiac output; however, addressing the airway first is essential to prevent further respiratory distress and worsening dysrhythmias. Starting an IV for monitoring fluid intake is not the most critical intervention in this scenario compared to ensuring airway patency and oxygenation.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access