NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. Which of the following is the most common type of malignant brain tumor in the United States?
- A. Meningioma
- B. Glioblastoma multiforme
- C. Acoustic neuroma
- D. Pituitary adenoma
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Glioblastoma multiforme is the most common malignant brain tumor in the United States, accounting for a significant portion of cases. It is known for its aggressive nature and poor prognosis. Surgical resection, followed by radiation and chemotherapy, is the standard treatment approach for glioblastoma multiforme. Meningioma, acoustic neuroma, and pituitary adenoma are also types of brain tumors but are not as common as glioblastoma multiforme in the United States.
2. The healthcare provider is assessing the mental status of a client admitted with possible organic brain disorder. Which of these questions will best assess the function of the client's recent memory?
- A. Name the year. What season is this? (pause for answer after each question)
- B. Subtract 7 from 100 and then subtract 7 from that. (pause for answer) Now continue to subtract 7 from the new number.
- C. I am going to say the names of three things, and I want you to repeat them after me: blue, ball, pen.
- D. What is this on my wrist? (point to your watch) Then ask, What is the purpose of it?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client to perform a calculation that involves working memory and processing skills. This question not only assesses the recent memory but also evaluates attention and executive functioning. The choice 'I am going to say the names of three things, and I want you to repeat them after me: blue, ball, pen' assesses immediate recall rather than recent memory. Asking about the current year or season tests orientation rather than recent memory. Inquiring about the watch and its purpose assesses comprehension and judgment rather than recent memory.
3. A 15-year-old female who ingested 15 tablets of maximum strength acetaminophen 45 minutes ago is rushed to the emergency department. Which of these orders should the nurse do first?
- A. Gastric lavage
- B. Administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) orally
- C. Start an IV Dextrose 5% with 0.33% normal saline to keep the vein open
- D. Have the patient drink activated charcoal mixed with water
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Acetaminophen overdose is extremely toxic to the liver causing hepatotoxicity. Early symptoms of hepatic damage include nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. If not treated immediately, hepatic necrosis occurs and may lead to death. Removing as much of the drug as possible is the first step in treatment for acetaminophen overdose, this is best done through gastric lavage. Gastric lavage (irrigation) and aspiration consist of flushing the stomach with fluids and then aspirating the fluid back out. This procedure is done in life-threatening cases such as acetaminophen toxicity and only if less than one (1) hour has occurred after ingestion.
4. A 67-year-old male patient with acute pancreatitis has a nasogastric (NG) tube to suction and is NPO. Which information obtained by the nurse indicates that these therapies have been effective?
- A. Bowel sounds are present.
- B. Grey Turner sign resolves.
- C. Electrolyte levels are normal.
- D. Abdominal pain is decreased.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Abdominal pain is decreased.' In a patient with acute pancreatitis, the goal of using an NG tube for suction and keeping the patient NPO is to decrease the release of pancreatic enzymes and alleviate pain. Therefore, a decrease in abdominal pain would indicate the effectiveness of these therapies. Bowel sounds being present do not necessarily indicate treatment effectiveness, as they can still be present even if the therapies are not fully effective. Normal electrolyte levels are important but do not directly reflect the efficacy of NG suction and NPO status. The resolution of Grey Turner sign, a bruising over the flanks associated with pancreatitis, is a late and non-specific finding and waiting for it to resolve is not a reliable indicator of treatment effectiveness.
5. A 16-month-old child has just been admitted to the hospital. As the nurse assigned to this child enters the hospital room for the first time, the toddler runs to the mother, clings to her, and begins to cry. What would be the initial action by the nurse?
- A. Arrange to change client care assignments
- B. Explain that this behavior is expected
- C. Discuss the appropriate use of 'time-out'
- D. Explain that the child needs extra attention
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When encountering a 16-month-old child exhibiting fear of strangers by clinging to the parent and crying, it is essential for the nurse to explain that this behavior is expected. Fear of strangers typically emerges around 6-8 months of age and can continue into the toddler years and beyond. This behavior is a normal part of development as the child is displaying attachment and trust in familiar caregivers. Changing client care assignments, discussing 'time-out,' or suggesting the child needs extra attention are not appropriate initial actions in this situation. Changing care assignments is unnecessary and does not address the child's emotional needs. Discussing 'time-out' is not relevant as it pertains to discipline strategies for older children. Suggesting the child needs extra attention may misinterpret the situation; the child's behavior is a normal response to a new environment and does not necessarily indicate a need for additional attention.
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