Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following can cause coup-contrecoup injuries?

• A. Rotational forces
• B. Deformation forces
• C. Deceleration forces
• D. Acceleration forces

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Deceleration forces occur when the head is moving and abruptly comes to a stop, such as in a car crash. This sudden deceleration can cause the brain to hit against the skull, resulting in coup-contrecoup injuries. In a coup-contrecoup injury, the brain is damaged on opposite sides due to the initial impact and the rebound effect inside the skull. Rotational forces usually result in diffuse axonal injuries rather than coup-contrecoup injuries. Deformation forces can cause focal brain injuries but not coup-contrecoup injuries. Acceleration forces typically lead to diffuse brain injuries, not coup-contrecoup injuries. Therefore, the correct answer is deceleration forces.

2. Claudication is a well-known effect of peripheral vascular disease. Which of the following facts about claudication is correct? Select the one that doesn't apply:

• A. It results when oxygen demand is greater than oxygen supply.
• B. It is characterized by pain that often occurs during rest.
• C. It is a result of tissue hypoxia.
• D. It is characterized by cramping and weakness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Claudication is a symptom of peripheral vascular disease where there is an inadequate supply of oxygen to the muscles due to reduced blood flow. This mismatch between oxygen demand and supply leads to tissue hypoxia, resulting in cramping, weakness, and discomfort. Option D correctly states that claudication is characterized by cramping and weakness, making it the correct answer. Options A, B, and C are incorrect. Claudication occurs when oxygen demand exceeds supply, not the other way around as stated in Option A. Pain in claudication typically occurs with activity, not at rest as mentioned in Option B. While tissue hypoxia is a consequence of claudication, it is not the primary cause, making Option C incorrect.

3. A patient is being discharged from the med-surgical unit. The patient has a history of gastritis. The nurse questions the patient on their usual routine at home. Which of these statements would alert the nurse that additional teaching is required?

• A. I avoid NSAIDs. I only take a daily aspirin for my heart health.
• B. I always avoid eating hot and spicy foods.
• C. I will continue taking my antacids with or immediately after meals.
• D. I will only drink coffee once a week, if even that often.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'I avoid NSAIDs. I only take a daily aspirin for my heart health.' Aspirin is classified as an NSAID and can exacerbate existing stomach problems, such as gastritis. Therefore, patients with gastritis should avoid aspirin just like any other NSAID. Choice B, 'I always avoid eating hot and spicy foods,' is a good practice for a patient with gastritis. Choice C, 'I will continue taking my antacids with or immediately after meals,' indicates understanding of the correct timing for antacid use. Choice D, 'I will only drink coffee once a week, if even that often,' shows a suitable limitation of coffee intake, which is beneficial for patients with gastritis.

4. Which finding would necessitate an immediate change in the therapeutic plan for a patient with grade 2 hepatic encephalopathy?

• A. Weight loss of 2 lb (1 kg)
• B. Positive urine pregnancy test
• C. Hemoglobin level of 10.4 g/dL
• D. Complaints of nausea and anorexia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A positive urine pregnancy test would require an immediate change in the therapeutic plan for a patient with grade 2 hepatic encephalopathy due to the teratogenic effects of ribavirin. Ribavirin needs to be discontinued immediately to prevent harm to the fetus. The other options, weight loss, hemoglobin level, and complaints of nausea and anorexia, are common adverse effects of the prescribed regimen and may necessitate interventions such as patient education or supportive care, but they would not mandate an immediate cessation of therapy as in the case of a positive pregnancy test.

5. The nurse is caring for a newborn with a suspected diagnosis of imperforate anus. The nurse monitors the infant, knowing that which is a clinical manifestation associated with this disorder?

• A. Bile-stained fecal emesis
• B. The passage of currant jelly-like stools
• C. Failure to pass meconium stool in the first 24 hours after birth
• D. Sausage-shaped mass palpated in the upper right abdominal quadrant

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Imperforate anus is the incomplete development or absence of the anus in its normal position in the perineum. Failure to pass meconium stool within the first 24 hours after birth is a key clinical manifestation associated with this disorder. This finding should prompt further assessment to confirm the suspected diagnosis. Other assessment findings in imperforate anus may include absence or stenosis of the anal rectal canal, presence of an anal membrane, and an external fistula to the perineum. Options A, B, and D describe findings typically noted in intussusception, a different condition characterized by bowel obstruction and telescoping of the intestines that can present with bile-stained fecal emesis, the passage of currant jelly-like stools, and a sausage-shaped mass palpated in the upper right abdominal quadrant.

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