NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. After repair of an inguinal hernia, the infant is being cared for. Which assessment finding indicates that the surgical repair was effective?
- A. A clean, dry incision
- B. Abdominal distension
- C. An adequate flow of urine
- D. Absence of inguinal swelling with crying
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The absence of inguinal swelling when the infant cries or strains indicates that the surgical repair of the inguinal hernia was effective. Inguinal swelling typically occurs with crying or straining in cases of this condition. A clean, dry incision signifies the absence of wound infection post-surgery but does not directly indicate the effectiveness of the hernia repair. Abdominal distension suggests a gastrointestinal issue unrelated to the hernia repair. An adequate flow of urine is not specific to evaluating the success of inguinal hernia repair.
2. Why are subdural hemorrhages more common in the elderly?
- A. Increased anticoagulant use
- B. Increased risk of falls
- C. Brain atrophy
- D. Inconsistent care giving
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Subdural hemorrhages are more common in the elderly due to cerebral atrophy resulting from the natural aging process. This atrophy can lead to the stretching of bridging veins, making them more fragile and prone to tearing even with minor trauma. While increased anticoagulant use and a higher risk of falls are common in the elderly, brain atrophy plays a more direct role in the increased incidence of subdural hemorrhages. Inconsistent caregiving, on the other hand, is not a direct cause of subdural hemorrhages but may impact the overall management and outcome of such cases.
3. A nurse is caring for a patient with peripheral vascular disease (PVD). The patient complains of burning and tingling of the hands and feet and cannot tolerate touch of any kind. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these symptoms?
- A. Inadequate tissue perfusion leading to nerve damage.
- B. Fluid overload leading to compression of nerve tissue.
- C. Sensation distortion due to psychiatric disturbance.
- D. Inflammation of the skin on the hands and feet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patients with the peripheral vascular disease often sustain nerve damage as a result of inadequate tissue perfusion. Ischemic rest pain is more worrisome; it refers to pain in the extremity that is due to a combination of PVD and inadequate perfusion. Ischemic rest pain often is exacerbated by poor cardiac output. The condition is often partially or fully relieved by placing the extremity in a dependent position, so that perfusion is enhanced by the effects of gravity.
4. The nurse is caring for a 27-year-old female client with a venous stasis ulcer. Which nursing intervention would be most effective in promoting healing?
- A. Apply dressing using sterile technique
- B. Improve the client's nutrition status
- C. Initiate limb compression therapy
- D. Begin proteolytic debridement
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Venous stasis occurs when venous blood collects and stagnates in the lower leg due to incompetent venous valves. This leads to inadequate oxygen and nutrient supply to the cells in the lower extremities, resulting in cell death or necrosis. Venous stasis ulcers, characterized by shallow brown wounds with irregular margins, typically develop on the lower leg or ankle. The primary goal in managing clients with venous stasis ulcers is to promote healing. Proper nutrition plays a crucial role in wound healing. Nutritional deficiencies are common causes of venous ulcers, and a diet rich in protein, iron, zinc, and vitamins C and A is recommended to enhance wound healing. Applying dressings with sterile technique, initiating limb compression therapy, and beginning proteolytic debridement are important interventions in wound care but may not directly address the underlying issue of poor nutrition that is essential for healing venous stasis ulcers.
5. The nurse reviews the record of a child who is suspected to have glomerulonephritis. Which statement by the child's parent should the nurse expect that is associated with this diagnosis?
- A. ''His pediatrician said his kidneys are working well.''
- B. ''I noticed his urine was the color of cola lately.''
- C. ''I'm so glad they didn't find any protein in his urine.''
- D. ''The nurse who admitted my child said his blood pressure was low.''
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Glomerulonephritis refers to a group of kidney disorders characterized by inflammatory injury in the glomerulus. Gross hematuria, resulting in dark, smoky, cola-colored, or brown-colored urine, is a classic symptom of glomerulonephritis. Blood urea nitrogen levels and serum creatinine levels may be elevated, indicating that kidney function is compromised. A mild to moderate elevation in protein in the urine is associated with glomerulonephritis. Hypertension is also common because of fluid volume overload secondary to the kidneys not working properly. Therefore, the parent's statement about noticing cola-colored urine aligns with the expected symptom in glomerulonephritis. The other options are less indicative of glomerulonephritis: choice A indicates normal kidney function, choice C mentions absence of protein in the urine (which is not expected in glomerulonephritis), and choice D talks about low blood pressure (hypertension is more common in glomerulonephritis).
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access