NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Prioritization Questions
1. Which of the following conditions is a contraindication for performing a diagnostic peritoneal lavage?
- A. A client who is 9 weeks pregnant
- B. A client with a femur fracture
- C. A morbidly obese client
- D. A client with hypertension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Diagnostic peritoneal lavage is contraindicated in morbidly obese clients due to several reasons. Excess body fat in morbidly obese individuals makes it challenging to locate essential landmarks required for the procedure. Additionally, the equipment utilized for the lavage may not be sized appropriately to accommodate an obese individual. Furthermore, morbid obesity places undue stress on the cardiovascular and respiratory systems, increasing the risk of complications when administering anesthetic agents during the procedure. Therefore, performing a diagnostic peritoneal lavage on a morbidly obese client is not recommended. Choice A, a client who is 9 weeks pregnant, is not a contraindication for diagnostic peritoneal lavage. Pregnancy status alone does not preclude the procedure unless there are specific maternal or fetal concerns. Choice B, a client with a femur fracture, is not a contraindication for diagnostic peritoneal lavage. The presence of a femur fracture does not typically affect the ability to perform this diagnostic procedure. Choice D, a client with hypertension, is not a contraindication for diagnostic peritoneal lavage. Hypertension, while a consideration for anesthesia and surgery, does not directly impact the feasibility of performing a diagnostic peritoneal lavage.
2. Which of the following statements made by a client during an individual therapy session would the nurse most identify as reflecting schizoaffective disorder?
- A. ''I just want to stab myself with this pen.''
- B. ''What's the point in life anyways?''
- C. ''My thoughts are racing because of the conspiracies against me.''
- D. ''I hear voices every day and sometimes see old friends that don't exist.''
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is, ''My thoughts are racing because of the conspiracies against me.'' Schizoaffective disorder combines the symptoms of bipolar disorder (mania and depression) with those of schizophrenia (delusions and disturbed thought processes). Racing thoughts are a characteristic symptom of a manic episode, while beliefs in conspiracies indicate paranoia, which are common in schizoaffective disorder. Choices A, B, and D do not specifically align with the symptoms of schizoaffective disorder. Choice A suggests self-harm, which may be seen in various mental health conditions; choice B reflects existential questioning or depression; and choice D describes hallucinations, which are more characteristic of schizophrenia rather than schizoaffective disorder.
3. A patient is admitted with active tuberculosis (TB). The nurse should question a healthcare provider's order to discontinue airborne precautions unless which assessment finding is documented?
- A. Chest x-ray shows no upper lobe infiltrates.
- B. TB medications have been taken for 6 months.
- C. Mantoux testing shows an induration of 10 mm.
- D. Three sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli are negative.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Three sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli are negative. Negative sputum smears indicate that Mycobacterium tuberculosis is not present in the sputum, and the patient cannot transmit the bacteria by the airborne route. This finding is crucial for discontinuing airborne precautions. Choice A is incorrect because chest x-rays do not determine the presence of active TB for transmission precautions. Choice B is not directly related to the infectiousness of TB; completing a 6-month course of medication is important for treatment but does not confirm the absence of active disease or infectiousness. Choice C is not relevant to assessing infectiousness; Mantoux testing measures exposure to TB but does not confirm the absence of active infection or infectiousness.
4. A nurse is caring for a 2-year-old child after corrective surgery for Tetralogy of Fallot. The mother reports that the child has suddenly begun seizing. The nurse recognizes this problem is probably due to
- A. A cerebral vascular accident
- B. Postoperative meningitis
- C. Medication reaction
- D. Metabolic alkalosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is a cerebral vascular accident. Polycythemia occurs as a physiological reaction to chronic hypoxemia, which commonly occurs in clients with Tetralogy of Fallot. Polycythemia and the resultant increased viscosity of the blood increase the risk of thromboembolic events, including cerebrovascular accidents. Signs and symptoms of a cerebral vascular accident include sudden paralysis, altered speech, extreme irritability or fatigue, and seizures. Postoperative meningitis (choice B) is less likely in this scenario as the sudden onset of seizing is more indicative of a vascular event rather than an infection. Medication reaction (choice C) is not the most probable cause given the history provided. Metabolic alkalosis (choice D) is not associated with sudden seizing in this context.
5. What is the likely cause of pericarditis in a young patient?
- A. Heart failure
- B. Acute MI
- C. Hypertension
- D. Infectious processes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In younger patients, pericarditis is typically caused by an infection commonly triggered by viruses like the Coxsackie virus, streptococcus, staphylococcus, or Haemophilus influenzae. Infectious processes are the leading cause of pericarditis in younger individuals. Heart failure, Acute MI, and Hypertension are not common causes of pericarditis in young patients. In older adults, acute myocardial infarction (MI) is a more common cause of pericarditis.
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