Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional has just received a medication order that is not legible. Which statement best reflects assertive communication?

• A. I cannot give this medication as it is written. I have no idea what you mean.
• B. Would you please clarify what you have written so I am sure I am reading it correctly?
• C. I am having difficulty reading your handwriting. It would save me time if you would be more careful.
• D. Please print in the future so I do not have to spend extra time attempting to read your writing.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assertive communication respects the rights and responsibilities of both parties. Choice B is the best example of assertive communication in this scenario. It addresses the issue directly by requesting clarification without blaming or devaluing the prescriber. This approach shows concern for safe practice and acknowledges the importance of clear communication in healthcare. Choices A, C, and D either involve self-depreciation, blaming the prescriber, or making demands without a respectful request for clarification, making them less effective in promoting effective communication and safe patient care.

2. Following mitral valve replacement surgery, a client develops PVCs. The healthcare provider orders a bolus of Lidocaine followed by a continuous Lidocaine infusion at a rate of 2 mg/minute. The IV solution contains 2 grams of Lidocaine in 500 mL of D5W. The infusion pump delivers 60 microdrops/mL. What rate would deliver 4 mg of Lidocaine per minute?

• A. 60 microdrops/minute
• B. 20 microdrops/minute
• C. 30 microdrops/minute
• D. 40 microdrops/minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the rate needed to deliver 4 mg/minute of Lidocaine, first, convert 2 grams to milligrams: 2 grams = 2000 mg. Then, set up a ratio between the total amount of Lidocaine (2000 mg) and the total volume of IV solution (500 mL): 2000 mg / 500 mL = 4 mg / x mL. Solving for x, x = 1 mL. Since the infusion pump delivers 60 microdrops per mL, multiplying by 60 microdrops/mL gives the correct rate of 60 microdrops/minute. This rate ensures the desired 4 mg of Lidocaine is delivered per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the accurate calculation based on the provided information.

3. A patient is found unconscious in their room with rhythmic jerking of all four extremities and heavy foaming at the mouth. The patient was on seizure precautions with bedrails up and padded. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?

• A. Administer Lorazepam (Ativan)
• B. Turn the patient to his/her side
• C. Call the physician
• D. Suction the patient

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's priority action should be to turn the patient to his/her side. This position helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration of secretions or vomitus. Administering Lorazepam (Ativan) without ensuring a clear airway could lead to further complications. Calling the physician is important, but immediate interventions to protect the airway take precedence. Suctioning the patient may be necessary but should not be the initial action; positioning for airway protection is the priority.

4. Which of the following can cause coup-contrecoup injuries?

• A. Rotational forces
• B. Deformation forces
• C. Deceleration forces
• D. Acceleration forces

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Deceleration forces occur when the head is moving and abruptly comes to a stop, such as in a car crash. This sudden deceleration can cause the brain to hit against the skull, resulting in coup-contrecoup injuries. In a coup-contrecoup injury, the brain is damaged on opposite sides due to the initial impact and the rebound effect inside the skull. Rotational forces usually result in diffuse axonal injuries rather than coup-contrecoup injuries. Deformation forces can cause focal brain injuries but not coup-contrecoup injuries. Acceleration forces typically lead to diffuse brain injuries, not coup-contrecoup injuries. Therefore, the correct answer is deceleration forces.

5. A female patient is prescribed metformin for glucose control. The patient is on NPO status pending a diagnostic test. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of metformin?

• A. Diarrhea and Vomiting
• B. Dizziness and Drowsiness
• C. Metallic taste
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypoglycemia.' When a patient is on NPO status (nothing by mouth) and prescribed metformin, there is an increased risk of hypoglycemia due to the absence of oral intake. Metformin, as an anti-glycemic drug, can lower blood sugar levels, and without food intake, the risk of hypoglycemia is higher. Diarrhea and vomiting are common gastrointestinal side effects of metformin but are not the main concern in this scenario. Dizziness and drowsiness are potential side effects of some medications but are not typically associated with metformin. Metallic taste is a known side effect of metformin but is not the primary concern in this situation where hypoglycemia is more critical to monitor due to the patient's NPO status.

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