Nursing Elites

1. To prepare a 56-year-old male patient with ascites for paracentesis, the nurse should?

• A. place the patient on NPO status.
• B. assist the patient to lie flat in bed.
• C. ask the patient to empty the bladder.
• D. position the patient on the right side.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To prepare a patient with ascites for paracentesis, the nurse should ask the patient to empty the bladder. This is important to decrease the risk of bladder perforation during the procedure. The patient should be positioned in Fowler's position to facilitate the procedure, not lie flat in bed, which can compromise breathing. Placing the patient on NPO status is unnecessary as sedation is not typically required for paracentesis. Positioning the patient on the right side is not a standard preparatory measure for paracentesis.

2. The patient who has two fractured ribs from an automobile accident is receiving discharge teaching. Which statement by the patient indicates effective teaching?

• A. I am going to buy a rib binder to wear during the day.
• B. I can take shallow breaths to prevent my chest from hurting.
• C. I should plan on taking the pain pills only at bedtime so I can sleep.
• D. I will use the incentive spirometer every hour or two during the day.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'I will use the incentive spirometer every hour or two during the day.' After sustaining rib fractures, it is crucial to prevent complications like atelectasis and pneumonia by practicing deep breathing and coughing. Using the incentive spirometer helps in maintaining lung expansion and preventing respiratory issues. Buying a rib binder could restrict chest expansion and hinder deep breathing efforts, increasing the risk of atelectasis. Taking shallow breaths may not effectively expand the lungs, leading to potential respiratory complications. Relying solely on pain medication at bedtime may not adequately address the need for lung expansion and prevention of respiratory complications during the day.

3. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to the mother of a child who had a cleft palate repair. Which statement should the nurse make to the mother?

• A. You should use an orthodontic nipple on the child's bottle.
• B. You need to use a plastic spoon to feed the child.
• C. You can allow the child to use a pacifier but only for 30 minutes at a time.
• D. You need to monitor the child's temperature for signs of infection using an oral thermometer.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a cleft palate repair, it is crucial to use an orthodontic nipple on the child's bottle to feed them appropriately. The mother should be instructed to give the child baby food or baby food mixed with water. It is important to avoid introducing straws, pacifiers, spoons, or fingers into the child's mouth for 7 to 10 days post-surgery to prevent complications. The use of a pacifier should be avoided for at least 2 weeks following the surgical repair to promote proper healing. Additionally, taking oral temperatures should be avoided, and alternative temperature monitoring methods should be utilized to reduce the risk of infection. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect because they could potentially lead to complications or hinder the child's recovery after cleft palate repair.

4. A 3-year-old child is seen in the health care clinic, and a diagnosis of encopresis is made. The nurse expects to provide teaching about which client problem?

• A. Odor
• B. Nausea
• C. Malaise
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encopresis is the repeated voluntary or involuntary passage of feces of normal or near-normal consistency in places not appropriate for that purpose according to the individual's own sociocultural setting. Signs of encopresis include evidence of soiled clothing, scratching or rubbing the anal area due to irritation, fecal odor without apparent awareness by the child, and social withdrawal. Teaching about odor is essential to address the issue of encopresis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because encopresis is not typically associated with nausea, malaise, or diarrhea. Therefore, teaching about these symptoms would not be relevant in the context of encopresis.

5. A 34-year-old patient with chronic hepatitis C infection has several medications prescribed. Which medication requires further discussion with the healthcare provider before administration?

• A. Ribavirin (Rebetol, Copegus) 600 mg PO bid
• B. Pegylated ?-interferon (PEG-Intron, Pegasys) SQ weekly
• C. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 25 mg PO every 4 hours PRN itching
• D. Dimenhydrinate (Dramamine) 50 mg PO every 6 hours PRN nausea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pegylated ?-interferon (PEG-Intron, Pegasys) SQ weekly. Pegylated ?-interferon is typically administered once weekly, not daily. Therefore, this medication requires further discussion with the healthcare provider before administration to ensure the correct dosing frequency. Ribavirin, choice A, is appropriate for chronic hepatitis C treatment. Choices C and D, Diphenhydramine and Dimenhydrinate, are commonly used for symptomatic relief in patients with hepatitis C and do not require further discussion with the healthcare provider in this context.

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