Nursing Elites

1. The parents of an infant who underwent surgical repair of bladder exstrophy ask if the infant will be able to control their bladder as they get older. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Your child will need catheterization until bladder control is gained.
• B. Your child will be able to control their bladder like other children.
• C. You should potty train your child at the same time you normally would.
• D. Your child will not have a sphincter mechanism for the first 3 to 5 years, so urine will drain freely.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bladder exstrophy is a congenital defect where the infant is born with the bladder located on the outside of the body. Surgical repair typically occurs within the first 1 to 2 days of life. In the following 3 to 5 years post-surgery, urine will drain freely from the urethra due to the absence of a sphincter mechanism. This period allows the bladder to develop capacity as the child grows. Subsequent surgical interventions will be required to establish a functioning sphincter mechanism. Therefore, the correct response is that the child will not have a sphincter mechanism for the first 3 to 5 years, leading to urine draining freely. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the physiological process and management of bladder exstrophy.

2. Which entry in the medical record best meets the requirement for problem-oriented charting?

• A. "A: Pacing and muttering to self. P: Sensory perceptual alteration, related to internal auditory stimulation. I: Given fluphenazine (Prolixin) 2.5 mg at 0900, and went to room to lie down. E: Calmer by 0930. Returned to lounge to watch TV."?
• B. "S: States, 'I feel like I'm ready to blow up.' O: Pacing hall, mumbling to self. A: Auditory hallucinations. P: Offer haloperidol (Haldol) 2 mg . I: (Haldol) 2 mg at 0900. E: Returned to lounge at 0930 and quietly watched TV."?
• C. "Agitated behavior. D: Patient muttering to self as though answering an unseen person. A: Given haloperidol (Haldol) 2 mg and went to room to lie down. E: Patient calmer. Returned to lounge to watch TV."?
• D. "Pacing hall and muttering to self as though answering an unseen person. haloperidol (Haldol) 2 mg administered at 0900 with calming effect in 30 minutes. Stated, 'I'm no longer bothered by the voices.'"?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Problem-oriented documentation uses the first letter of key words to organize data: S for subjective data, O for objective data, A for assessment, P for plan, I for intervention, and E for evaluation. The correct answer demonstrates problem-oriented charting by following this structure. Choice A, C, and D do not follow the problem-oriented charting format and instead offer examples of different documentation styles such as PIE charting, focus documentation, and narrative documentation, respectively. Therefore, choice B is the best example of problem-oriented charting among the options provided.

3. The nurse has provided dietary instructions to the mother of a child with celiac disease. The nurse determines that further instruction is needed if the mother states that she will include which food item in the child's nutritional plan?

• A. Corn
• B. Chicken
• C. Oatmeal
• D. Vitamin supplements

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In celiac disease, individuals need to avoid gluten-containing foods like wheat, rye, barley, and oats. Oatmeal contains gluten unless it is specifically labeled as gluten-free. Corn and rice are safe alternatives for individuals with celiac disease as they do not contain gluten. Chicken is a naturally gluten-free protein source. While vitamin supplements may be necessary to address deficiencies due to malabsorption, oatmeal poses a risk of gluten exposure, making it an incorrect choice for a child with celiac disease.

4. The nurse reviews the record of a newborn infant and notes that a diagnosis of esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula is suspected. The nurse expects to note which most likely sign of this condition documented in the record?

• A. Incessant crying
• B. Coughing at nighttime
• C. Choking with feedings
• D. Severe projectile vomiting

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula, the esophagus ends before it reaches the stomach, forming a blind pouch, and there is an abnormal connection (fistula) with the trachea. Any child who exhibits the '3 Cs'"?coughing and choking with feedings and unexplained cyanosis"?should be suspected to have tracheoesophageal fistula. Option A, 'Incessant crying,' is not a typical sign of esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula. Option B, 'Coughing at nighttime,' is not a specific sign associated with this condition. Option D, 'Severe projectile vomiting,' is not a common sign of esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula.

5. During the admission assessment of a client with chronic bilateral glaucoma, which statement by the client would the nurse anticipate due to this condition?

• A. "I have constant blurred vision."?
• B. "I can't see on my left side."?
• C. "I have to turn my head to see my room."?
• D. "I have specks floating in my eyes."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In chronic bilateral glaucoma, peripheral visual field loss occurs due to elevated intraocular pressure, leading to the need to turn the head to compensate for the visual field deficit. This symptom is characteristic of advanced glaucoma. Choice A is incorrect as constant blurred vision is a common symptom but not specific to peripheral vision loss in glaucoma. Choice B is incorrect because specific visual field deficits are more common than complete loss on one side. Choice D is incorrect as seeing floaters (specks floating in the eyes) is associated with other eye conditions like posterior vitreous detachment, not glaucoma.

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