the nurse is providing discharge instructions to the parents of an infant who underwent surgical repair of bladder exstrophy the parents ask if the in
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NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers

1. The parents of an infant who underwent surgical repair of bladder exstrophy ask if the infant will be able to control their bladder as they get older. How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bladder exstrophy is a congenital defect where the infant is born with the bladder located on the outside of the body. Surgical repair typically occurs within the first 1 to 2 days of life. In the following 3 to 5 years post-surgery, urine will drain freely from the urethra due to the absence of a sphincter mechanism. This period allows the bladder to develop capacity as the child grows. Subsequent surgical interventions will be required to establish a functioning sphincter mechanism. Therefore, the correct response is that the child will not have a sphincter mechanism for the first 3 to 5 years, leading to urine draining freely. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the physiological process and management of bladder exstrophy.

2. When supporting the psychosocial needs of a client experiencing negative side effects associated with chemotherapy, which intervention is most appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is experiencing negative side effects associated with chemotherapy, addressing their psychosocial needs is crucial. One effective intervention is to determine the levels of support from significant others. This involves assessing the family, spouse, or friends who can provide help and support to the client when healthcare providers are not present. By identifying and organizing these resources, the nurse can help alleviate fears about the future, prepare caregivers for the client's needs, and facilitate a smoother transition for the client upon discharge. Reading discharge instructions, providing medications, or giving self-care instructions, although important, do not directly address the psychosocial needs of the client during this challenging time.

3. Which assessment information will be most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider about a patient with acute cholecystitis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that the patient's stools are tan colored. Tan or grey stools indicate biliary obstruction, which requires rapid intervention to resolve in a patient with acute cholecystitis. This change in stool color is a critical sign that the healthcare provider needs to be informed about promptly. The other choices are less concerning and may be common symptoms in patients with acute cholecystitis, but tan-colored stools specifically indicate a potential serious complication that warrants immediate attention.

4. A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism. A nurse checking the patient's lab results would expect which of the following changes in laboratory findings?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In primary hyperparathyroidism, there is excess secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH) leading to increased resorption of calcium from bones and decreased excretion of calcium by the kidneys. This results in elevated serum calcium levels. Elevated serum calcium is a hallmark characteristic of primary hyperparathyroidism, making it the correct answer. Low serum parathyroid hormone (PTH) (Choice B) is incorrect because primary hyperparathyroidism is associated with elevated PTH levels due to the malfunction of the parathyroid glands. Elevated serum vitamin D (Choice C) is incorrect because primary hyperparathyroidism is not typically associated with elevated vitamin D levels. Low urine calcium (Choice D) is incorrect as primary hyperparathyroidism leads to decreased calcium excretion by the kidneys, resulting in high levels of calcium in the urine.

5. Following a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) in their 6-year-old child, the parent's remark: "We just don't know how he caught the disease!"? The nurse's response is based on an understanding that:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) is not 'caught' but is a response to a previous B-hemolytic strep infection. AGN is generally accepted as an immune-complex disease triggered by an antecedent streptococcal infection occurring 4 to 6 weeks prior. It is considered a noninfectious renal disease. Choice A is incorrect because AGN is not a streptococcal infection that involves the kidney tubules but rather a noninfectious renal disease. Choice B is incorrect as AGN is not easily transmissible in schools and camps but is a result of a previous streptococcal infection. Choice C is incorrect as AGN is not usually associated with chronic respiratory infections, but with a previous streptococcal infection.

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