Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following techniques can help to prevent skin irritation or breakdown around a tracheostomy site?

• A. Manage secretions by providing suction on a regular basis
• B. Cleanse the site daily with a mixture of povidone-iodine and water
• C. Avoid using tube ties to secure the tube
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Excess secretions from the tracheostomy tube can collect near the stomal opening and cause skin breakdown. Management of secretions through regular suctioning will keep the area clean and dry, minimizing skin irritation. Choice B, cleansing the site daily with povidone-iodine and water, is incorrect as it may lead to skin irritation due to the harshness of povidone-iodine. Choice C, avoiding tube ties to secure the tube, is also incorrect as securing the tube is essential for stability. Choice D, 'None of the above,' is incorrect as managing secretions through suctioning is crucial in preventing skin irritation.

2. The nurse is caring for a woman 2 hours after a vaginal delivery. Documentation indicates that the membranes were ruptured for 36 hours prior to delivery. What are the priority nursing diagnoses at this time?

• A. Altered tissue perfusion
• B. Risk for fluid volume deficit
• C. High risk for hemorrhage
• D. Risk for infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for infection.' When the membranes are ruptured for more than 24 hours prior to birth, there is a significantly increased risk of infection for both the mother and the newborn. Monitoring for signs of infection, such as fever, foul-smelling vaginal discharge, and uterine tenderness, is crucial. Option A, 'Altered tissue perfusion,' is not the priority in this scenario as infection risk takes precedence due to the prolonged rupture of membranes. Option B, 'Risk for fluid volume deficit,' is less of a priority compared to the immediate risk of infection. Option C, 'High risk for hemorrhage,' is not the priority concern at this time based on the information provided.

3. A patient with pneumonia has a fever of 101.4 F (38.6 C), a nonproductive cough, and an oxygen saturation of 88%. The patient complains of weakness, fatigue, and needs assistance to get out of bed. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse assign as the highest priority?

• A. Hyperthermia related to infectious illness
• B. Impaired transfer ability related to weakness
• C. Ineffective airway clearance related to thick secretions
• D. Impaired gas exchange related to respiratory congestion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Impaired gas exchange related to respiratory congestion.' While all the nursing diagnoses are relevant to the patient's condition, the priority should be given to impaired gas exchange due to the patient's low oxygen saturation level of 88%. This indicates a significant risk of hypoxia for all body tissues unless the gas exchange is improved. Addressing impaired gas exchange is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation and prevent further complications. Hyperthermia, impaired transfer ability, and ineffective airway clearance are important concerns but addressing gas exchange takes precedence in this scenario.

4. The child with hemolytic-uremic syndrome is anuric and will undergo peritoneal dialysis. Which measure should the nurse implement?

• A. Restrict fluids as prescribed.
• B. Care for the arteriovenous fistula.
• C. Encourage foods high in potassium.
• D. Administer analgesics as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hemolytic-uremic syndrome, often associated with bacterial toxins and viruses, acute kidney injury occurs in children, leading to symptoms like anemia, thrombocytopenia, renal injury, and CNS symptoms. For an anuric child with hemolytic-uremic syndrome undergoing peritoneal dialysis, fluid restriction is vital to prevent fluid overload. Pain management is not directly related to hemolytic-uremic syndrome. Foods high in potassium should be limited, not encouraged, due to impaired kidney function. Peritoneal dialysis does not involve an arteriovenous fistula, which is specific to hemodialysis.

5. A 49-year-old female patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices has a new prescription for propranolol (Inderal). Which finding is the best indicator that the medication has been effective?

• A. The patient reports no chest pain.
• B. Blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg
• C. Stools test negative for occult blood.
• D. The apical pulse rate is 68 beats/minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best indicator that propranolol has been effective in a patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices is when the stools test negative for occult blood. Propranolol is prescribed to decrease the risk of bleeding from esophageal varices. This medication's effectiveness is primarily assessed by the absence of blood in the stools, indicating a reduction in the risk of bleeding from the varices. Monitoring for chest pain, blood pressure control, and a decrease in heart rate are important parameters in other conditions treated with propranolol, such as hypertension, angina, and tachycardia, but in this particular case, the absence of occult blood in the stools is the most relevant indicator of treatment success.

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