Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for an infant with cryptorchidism. The nurse anticipates that the most likely diagnostic study to be prescribed would be the one that assesses which item?

• A. Babinski reflex
• B. DNA synthesis
• C. Urinary function
• D. Chromosomal analysis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cryptorchidism, also known as undescended testes, may be caused by hormonal deficiency, intrinsic testicular abnormality, or a structural problem. Diagnostic studies for cryptorchidism typically involve assessing urinary function because the kidneys and testes originate from the same embryonic tissue. The Babinski reflex is a test for neurological function and is not relevant to evaluating cryptorchidism. DNA synthesis and chromosomal analysis are not commonly used diagnostic tests for cryptorchidism, as they are unrelated to the disorder's etiology or presentation.

2. A mother brings her 5-week-old infant to the health care clinic and tells the nurse that the child has been vomiting after meals. The mother reports that the vomiting is becoming more frequent and forceful. The nurse suspects pyloric stenosis and asks the mother which assessment question to elicit data specific to this condition?

• A. Are the stools ribbon-like, and is the infant eating poorly?
• B. Does the infant suddenly become pale, begin to cry, and draw the legs up to the chest?
• C. Does the vomit contain sour, undigested food without bile, and is the infant constipated?
• D. Does the infant cry loudly and continuously during the evening hours but nurses or takes formula well?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Vomiting undigested food that is not bile stained and constipation are classic symptoms of pyloric stenosis. Stools that are ribbon-like and a child who is eating poorly are signs of congenital megacolon (Hirschsprung's disease). An infant who suddenly becomes pale, cries out, and draws the legs up to the chest is demonstrating physical signs of intussusception. Crying during the evening hours, appearing to be in pain, eating well, and gaining weight are clinical manifestations of colic.

3. During an intake screening for a patient with hypertension who has been taking ramipril for 4 weeks, which statement made by the patient would be most important for the nurse to pass on to the physician?

• A. ''I get dizzy when I get out of bed.''
• B. ''I'm urinating much more than I used to.''
• C. ''I've been running on the treadmill for 10 minutes each day.''
• D. ''I can't get rid of this cough.''

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is ''I can't get rid of this cough.'' Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent, dry cough as an adverse effect. This symptom can be indicative of bradykinin accumulation caused by ACE inhibitors. It is important for the nurse to inform the physician about this side effect so that a medication change to another class of antihypertensives, such as an ARB, may be considered. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the common adverse effects of ramipril and are not as concerning for a patient on this medication.

4. The client is seven (7) days post total hip replacement. Which statement by the client requires the nurse's immediate attention?

• A. I have bad muscle spasms in my lower leg of the affected extremity.
• B. I just can't 'catch my breath' over the past few minutes and I think I am in grave danger.
• C. I have to use the bedpan to pass my water at least every 1 to 2 hours.
• D. It seems that the pain medication is not working as well today.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: While all statements by the client require attention, the most critical one that demands immediate action is option B. Clients who have undergone hip or knee surgery are at an increased risk of postoperative pulmonary embolism. Sudden dyspnea and tachycardia are hallmark signs of this condition. Without appropriate prophylaxis such as anticoagulant therapy, deep vein thrombosis (DVT) can develop within 7 to 14 days after surgery, potentially leading to pulmonary embolism. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize signs of DVT, which include pain, tenderness, skin discoloration, swelling, or tightness in the affected leg. Signs of pulmonary embolism include sudden onset dyspnea, tachycardia, confusion, and pleuritic chest pain. Option B indicates a potentially life-threatening situation that requires immediate intervention to prevent serious complications.

5. A patient presents with vesicles covering the upper torso. Which of the following situations could cause this condition?

• A. Knife fight
• B. Auto accident
• C. Sunburn
• D. Fungal infection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Vesicles are fluid-filled blisters. In the context of the upper torso, the presentation of vesicles suggests a second-degree sunburn. Sunburn can cause blistering, leading to the formation of vesicles. Choice A, 'Knife fight,' does not align with the presentation of vesicles on the upper torso due to trauma. Choice B, 'Auto accident,' is more likely to cause abrasions or bruises rather than vesicles. Choice D, 'Fungal infection,' typically presents with other symptoms such as redness, itching, or scaling, but not vesicles on the upper torso.

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