Nursing Elites

1. Based on the information given, which patient would be an appropriate candidate for a closed MRI without contrast?

• A. A 20-year-old woman with unexplained joint pain and a low BMI.
• B. A 35-year-old woman with Multiple Sclerosis who is trying to conceive.
• C. A 67-year-old man who had open-heart surgery 4 years ago.
• D. A 40-year-old woman in a hypomanic state for the last 2 days.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 20-year-old woman with unexplained joint pain and a low BMI. MRI can be used to diagnose musculoskeletal disorders, and this patient has no contraindications to an MRI. Choice B is incorrect because using MRI without contrast may not be ideal for a patient trying to conceive. Choice C is incorrect as the patient's past open-heart surgery may pose risks for an MRI without contrast. Choice D is incorrect since the patient's hypomanic state does not indicate a need for an MRI without contrast for joint pain.

2. A patient is admitted to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset shortness of breath and is diagnosed with a possible pulmonary embolus. How should the nurse prepare the patient for diagnostic testing to confirm the diagnosis?

• A. Start an IV so contrast media may be given
• B. Ensure that the patient has been NPO for at least 6 hours.
• C. Inform radiology that a radioactive glucose preparation is needed
• D. Instruct the patient to undress to the waist and remove any metal objects

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For diagnosing pulmonary emboli, spiral computed tomography (CT) scans are commonly used, and contrast media may be given intravenously (IV) during the scan to enhance visualization of blood vessels. Chest x-rays are not typically diagnostic for pulmonary embolism. When preparing for a chest x-ray, the patient needs to undress and remove any metal objects. Bronchoscopy is used for examining the bronchial tree, not for assessing vascular changes, and the patient should be NPO 6 to 12 hours before the procedure. Positron emission tomography (PET) scans are primarily used to detect malignancies, and a radioactive glucose preparation is utilized for this purpose.

3. During shift change, a healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's medication. Which of the following medications would be contraindicated if the patient were pregnant?

• A. Warfarin (Coumadin)
• B. Celecoxib (Celebrex)
• C. Clonidine (Catapres)
• D. Transdermal nicotine (Habitrol)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Warfarin (Coumadin) is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its pregnancy category X classification. It is associated with central nervous system defects, spontaneous abortion, stillbirth, prematurity, hemorrhage, and ocular defects when administered at any time during pregnancy. Fetal warfarin syndrome can occur when given during the first trimester. Celecoxib (Celebrex) is a pregnancy category C medication, which means there may be risks but benefits may outweigh them. Clonidine (Catapres) is also a pregnancy category C drug, and while animal studies have shown adverse effects on the fetus, there are limited human studies. Transdermal nicotine (Habitrol) is classified as a pregnancy category D drug, indicating positive evidence of fetal risk, but benefits may still warrant its use in pregnant women with serious conditions.

4. The nurse is caring for a 10-year-old upon admission to the burn unit. One assessment parameter that will indicate that the child has adequate fluid replacement is

• A. Urinary output of 30 ml per hour
• B. No complaints of thirst
• C. Increased hematocrit
• D. Good skin turgor around burn

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is urinary output of 30 ml per hour. In a 10-year-old child, this level of urinary output is indicative of adequate fluid replacement without suggesting overload. Monitoring urinary output is crucial in assessing fluid balance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. No complaints of thirst do not provide a direct assessment of fluid status. Increased hematocrit is a sign of dehydration, not adequate fluid replacement. Good skin turgor around the burn is a general assessment but may not directly reflect the child's overall fluid status.

5. A nurse caring for several patients in the cardiac unit is told that one is scheduled for implantation of an automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator. Which of the following patients is most likely to have this procedure?

• A. A patient admitted for myocardial infarction without cardiac muscle damage.
• B. A postoperative coronary bypass patient, recovering on schedule.
• C. A patient with a history of ventricular tachycardia and syncopal episodes.
• D. A patient with a history of atrial tachycardia and fatigue.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a patient with a history of ventricular tachycardia and syncopal episodes. An automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator is used to deliver an electric shock to the heart to terminate episodes of ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. These patients are at high risk of life-threatening arrhythmias, which may result in syncope. Patients with atrial tachycardia and fatigue (Choice D) would not typically require an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator as their primary issue is related to atrial arrhythmias. Patients who have had a myocardial infarction without cardiac muscle damage (Choice A) or postoperative coronary bypass patients recovering on schedule (Choice B) are not necessarily at high risk for ventricular arrhythmias and would not be the primary candidates for an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator.

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