Nursing Elites

1. Based on the information given, which patient would be an appropriate candidate for a closed MRI without contrast?

• A. A 20-year-old woman with unexplained joint pain and a low BMI.
• B. A 35-year-old woman with Multiple Sclerosis who is trying to conceive.
• C. A 67-year-old man who had open-heart surgery 4 years ago.
• D. A 40-year-old woman in a hypomanic state for the last 2 days.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 20-year-old woman with unexplained joint pain and a low BMI. MRI can be used to diagnose musculoskeletal disorders, and this patient has no contraindications to an MRI. Choice B is incorrect because using MRI without contrast may not be ideal for a patient trying to conceive. Choice C is incorrect as the patient's past open-heart surgery may pose risks for an MRI without contrast. Choice D is incorrect since the patient's hypomanic state does not indicate a need for an MRI without contrast for joint pain.

2. A man has been taking lisinopril for CHF. The patient is seen in the emergency room for persistent diarrhea. The nurse is concerned about which side effect of lisinopril?

• A. Vertigo
• B. Hypotension
• C. Palpitations
• D. Nagging, dry cough

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypotension.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor commonly used for CHF, can cause hypotension as a side effect. Persistent diarrhea can lead to dehydration, increasing the risk of hypotension in this patient. Vertigo (choice A) is not a typical side effect of lisinopril. Palpitations (choice C) are not directly associated with lisinopril use. A nagging, dry cough (choice D) is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors like lisinopril, but in this case, the patient's presentation with persistent diarrhea would make hypotension a more immediate concern.

3. Which response by the nurse best explains the purpose of ranitidine (Zantac) for a patient admitted with bleeding esophageal varices?

• A. The medication will reduce the risk of aspiration.
• B. The medication will inhibit the development of gastric ulcers.
• C. The medication will prevent irritation of the enlarged veins.
• D. The medication will decrease nausea and improve appetite.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is: 'The medication will prevent irritation of the enlarged veins.' Esophageal varices are dilated submucosal veins. The therapeutic action of H2-receptor blockers in patients with esophageal varices is to prevent irritation and bleeding from the varices caused by reflux of acidic gastric contents. While ranitidine can decrease the risk of peptic ulcers, reduce nausea, and help prevent aspiration pneumonia, the primary purpose of H2-receptor blockade in this patient is to prevent irritation and bleeding from the varices, not the other listed effects.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing the mental status of a client admitted with possible organic brain disorder. Which of these questions will best assess the function of the client's recent memory?

• A. Name the year. What season is this? (pause for answer after each question)
• B. Subtract 7 from 100 and then subtract 7 from that. (pause for answer) Now continue to subtract 7 from the new number.
• C. I am going to say the names of three things, and I want you to repeat them after me: blue, ball, pen.
• D. What is this on my wrist? (point to your watch) Then ask, What is the purpose of it?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client to perform a calculation that involves working memory and processing skills. This question not only assesses the recent memory but also evaluates attention and executive functioning. The choice 'I am going to say the names of three things, and I want you to repeat them after me: blue, ball, pen' assesses immediate recall rather than recent memory. Asking about the current year or season tests orientation rather than recent memory. Inquiring about the watch and its purpose assesses comprehension and judgment rather than recent memory.

5. Which pathologic condition is described as 'increased intraocular pressure of the eye'?

• A. Detached Retina
• B. Fovea Centralis
• C. Presbyopia
• D. Glaucoma

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Glaucoma. Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure in the eye, which can lead to optic nerve damage, vision loss, and blindness if left untreated. Detached Retina (A), Fovea Centralis (B), and Presbyopia (C) are not conditions associated with increased intraocular pressure like Glaucoma. Detached Retina is a separation of the retina from its underlying tissue, Fovea Centralis is a part of the retina responsible for sharp central vision, and Presbyopia is an age-related condition affecting near vision due to the loss of flexibility in the eye's lens.

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