Nursing Elites

1. A 65-year-old man is prescribed Flomax (Tamsulosin) for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia. The patient lives in an upstairs apartment. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of Flomax?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Back Pain
• D. Difficulty Urinating

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypotension.' Flomax (Tamsulosin) is known to cause orthostatic hypotension, especially in the elderly, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when standing up. This side effect can result in dizziness, falls, and injury, especially concerning for a patient living in an upstairs apartment. Tachycardia (increased heart rate) and back pain are less commonly associated with Flomax use, while difficulty urinating is a symptom that Flomax is intended to improve in patients with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia.

2. A 33-year-old male client with heart failure has been taking furosemide for the past week. Which of the following assessment cues below may indicate the client is experiencing a negative side effect from the medication?

• A. Weight gain of 5 pounds
• B. Edema of the ankles
• C. Gastric irritability
• D. Decreased appetite

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Decreased appetite.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure, where it helps reduce fluid retention. One common side effect of furosemide is hypokalemia, which can lead to decreased appetite among other symptoms. Hypokalemia is a low level of potassium in the blood, and its signs and symptoms include anorexia, fatigue, nausea, decreased GI motility, muscle weakness, dysrhythmias, reduced urine osmolality, and altered level of consciousness. Weight gain and ankle edema are actually expected outcomes of furosemide therapy due to its diuretic effect, which helps reduce edema and fluid overload. Gastric irritability is a nonspecific symptom that is not typically associated with furosemide use. Therefore, a decreased appetite is a key indicator of a potential negative side effect when assessing a client on furosemide therapy.

3. A client is being assessed for risks of a pressure ulcer by a healthcare professional. What is the best description of what may be found with an early pressure ulcer in an African American client?

• A. Skin has a purple/bluish color
• B. Capillary refill is 1 second
• C. Skin appears blanched at the pressure site
• D. Tenting appears when checking skin turgor

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing for signs of developing pressure ulcers in a client with dark skin, traditional signs like blanching may not be evident. In individuals with darker skin tones, the skin of an early pressure ulcer may present with a purple or bluish hue. This discoloration can be a crucial indicator of compromised circulation and tissue damage. Capillary refill, blanching, and tenting are more commonly used in the assessment of skin integrity and hydration levels but may not be as reliable in individuals with darker skin tones, making the purple/bluish color a key finding in this context.

4. Which of the following techniques can help to prevent skin irritation or breakdown around a tracheostomy site?

• A. Manage secretions by providing suction on a regular basis
• B. Cleanse the site daily with a mixture of povidone-iodine and water
• C. Avoid using tube ties to secure the tube
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Excess secretions from the tracheostomy tube can collect near the stomal opening and cause skin breakdown. Management of secretions through regular suctioning will keep the area clean and dry, minimizing skin irritation. Choice B, cleansing the site daily with povidone-iodine and water, is incorrect as it may lead to skin irritation due to the harshness of povidone-iodine. Choice C, avoiding tube ties to secure the tube, is also incorrect as securing the tube is essential for stability. Choice D, 'None of the above,' is incorrect as managing secretions through suctioning is crucial in preventing skin irritation.

5. The nurse is preparing to care for an infant who has esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula. Surgery is scheduled to be performed in 1 hour. Intravenous fluids have been initiated, and a nasogastric (NG) tube has been inserted by the primary healthcare provider. The nurse plans care, knowing that which intervention is of highest priority during this preoperative period?

• A. Monitor the temperature.
• B. Monitor the blood pressure.
• C. Reposition the infant frequently.
• D. Aspirate the NG tube every 5 to 10 minutes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula is a critical neonatal surgical emergency. The highest priority intervention during the preoperative period is to aspirate the NG tube every 5 to 10 minutes to keep the proximal pouch clear of secretions and prevent aspiration. This is crucial in reducing the risk of gastric secretions entering the lungs. Repositioning the infant frequently is not as critical as ensuring the NG tube is aspirated. Monitoring the temperature and blood pressure are important nursing interventions but are not the highest priority in this situation. It is essential to prioritize airway protection and prevent aspiration in this neonate undergoing urgent surgical intervention.

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