Nursing Elites

1. A 65-year-old man is prescribed Flomax (Tamsulosin) for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia. The patient lives in an upstairs apartment. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of Flomax?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Back Pain
• D. Difficulty Urinating

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypotension.' Flomax (Tamsulosin) is known to cause orthostatic hypotension, especially in the elderly, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when standing up. This side effect can result in dizziness, falls, and injury, especially concerning for a patient living in an upstairs apartment. Tachycardia (increased heart rate) and back pain are less commonly associated with Flomax use, while difficulty urinating is a symptom that Flomax is intended to improve in patients with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia.

2. A child is diagnosed with Hirschsprung's disease. The nurse is teaching the parents about the cause of the disease. Which statement, if made by the parent, supports that teaching was successful?

• A. The absence of special cells in the rectum caused the disease.
• B. Incomplete digestion of the protein part of wheat, barley, rye, and oats is not the cause of the disease.
• C. The disease does not occur due to increased bowel motility leading to spasm and pain.
• D. The disease is not caused by the inability to tolerate sugar found in dairy products.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hirschsprung's disease, also known as congenital aganglionosis or megacolon, is characterized by the absence of ganglion cells in the rectum and, sometimes, extending into the colon. Choice A correctly explains the cause of Hirschsprung's disease. Choice B is incorrect as it describes celiac disease, which is related to gluten intolerance. Choice C is inaccurate as it describes symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome, not the cause of Hirschsprung's disease. Choice D is wrong as it pertains to lactose intolerance, not Hirschsprung's disease.

3. The nurse completes discharge teaching for a patient who has had a lung transplant. The nurse evaluates that the teaching has been effective if the patient makes which statement?

• A. I will make an appointment to see the doctor every year.
• B. I will stop taking the prednisone if I experience a dry cough.
• C. I will not worry if I feel a little short of breath with exercise.
• D. I will call the health care provider right away if I develop a fever.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'I will call the health care provider right away if I develop a fever.' It is crucial for patients who have undergone a lung transplant to be vigilant about any signs of infection or rejection. A low-grade fever can be an early indicator of such complications, requiring immediate medical attention. While annual follow-up visits are necessary, they are not sufficient for monitoring acute changes in health post-transplant. Stopping prednisone abruptly can lead to rejection and should only be done under healthcare provider guidance. Feeling short of breath with exercise should be reported as it can indicate potential issues. Recognizing and addressing symptoms promptly is key to successful post-transplant care, and in this case, calling the healthcare provider immediately for a fever is the most appropriate action.

4. During an assessment of a client with cardiomyopathy, the nurse finds that the systolic blood pressure has decreased from 145 to 110 mm Hg and the heart rate has risen from 72 to 96 beats per minute, and the client complains of periodic dizzy spells. The nurse instructs the client to:

• A. Increase fluids that are high in protein
• B. Restrict fluids
• C. Force fluids and reassess blood pressure
• D. Limit fluids to non-caffeine beverages

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client with cardiomyopathy is exhibiting signs of orthostatic hypotension, which is characterized by a significant drop in systolic blood pressure (>15 mm Hg) and an increase in heart rate (>15%), along with dizziness. These symptoms suggest volume depletion, inadequate vasoconstrictor mechanisms, and autonomic insufficiency. The appropriate nursing intervention in this case is to force fluids and reassess blood pressure to address the underlying issue of volume depletion and improve hemodynamic stability. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing fluids high in protein, restricting fluids, or limiting fluids to non-caffeine beverages are not appropriate actions for a client experiencing orthostatic hypotension and signs of volume depletion.

5. What is a priority problem for a child with severe edema caused by nephrotic syndrome?

• A. Risk for constipation
• B. Risk for skin breakdown
• C. Inability to regulate body temperature
• D. Consuming more calories or nutrients than the body requires

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome, characterized by massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema, a child with severe edema is at high risk for skin breakdown. The priority concern is to prevent skin breakdown by cleaning skin surfaces and ensuring adequate separation with clothing to avoid irritation. The child with nephrotic syndrome is typically anorexic, making consuming more calories or nutrients than necessary not a concern. Risk for constipation and inability to regulate body temperature are not primary issues associated with edema caused by nephrotic syndrome.

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