Nursing Elites

1. A 36-year-old male patient in the outpatient clinic is diagnosed with acute hepatitis C (HCV) infection. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

• A. Schedule the patient for HCV genotype testing.
• B. Administer the HCV vaccine and immune globulin.
• C. Teach the patient about ribavirin (Rebetol) treatment.
• D. Explain that the infection will resolve over a few months.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action by the nurse is to schedule the patient for HCV genotype testing. Genotyping of HCV is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment regimen and guiding therapy decisions. Most patients with acute HCV infection progress to the chronic stage, so it is incorrect to inform the patient that the infection will resolve in a few months. There is no vaccine or immune globulin available for HCV, and ribavirin (Rebetol) is typically used for chronic HCV infection. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize genotyping to assist in treatment planning.

2. Which individual is at greatest risk for developing hypertension?

• A. 45-year-old African-American attorney
• B. 60-year-old Asian-American shop owner
• C. 40-year-old Caucasian nurse
• D. 55-year-old Hispanic teacher

Correct answer: A

Rationale: African-Americans have a higher risk of developing hypertension compared to other ethnic groups. They tend to develop high blood pressure at younger ages and are more sensitive to salt, which increases their risk of hypertension. Additionally, studies have shown that African-Americans may respond differently to hypertensive drugs. Therefore, the 45-year-old African-American attorney is at the greatest risk for developing hypertension. The other choices do not specify factors that put them at a higher risk for hypertension compared to African-Americans.

3. In a 24-year-old woman, the term used to define uterine bleeding in which there is no menstruation is:

• A. Oligomenorrhea
• B. Amenorrhea
• C. Menorrhagia
• D. Metrorrhagia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amenorrhea is the correct term for the absence of menstrual periods in a woman of childbearing age. It is typically defined as no menstruation for at least three consecutive cycles or six months. Oligomenorrhea refers to infrequent or irregular menstrual periods rather than complete absence. Menorrhagia is characterized by excessive menstrual bleeding, not the absence of menstruation. Metrorrhagia involves irregular, acyclic bleeding between menstrual periods, which is different from the absence of menstruation.

4. A patient asks a nurse administering blood how long red blood cells live in the body. What is the correct response?

• A. The life span of RBC is 45 days
• B. The life span of RBC is 60 days
• C. The life span of RBC is 90 days
• D. The life span of RBC is 120 days

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that red blood cells have a lifespan of 120 days in the body. This allows for efficient oxygen transport throughout the circulatory system. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the lifespan of red blood cells is actually 120 days. Understanding the lifespan of red blood cells is crucial in assessing various conditions related to blood cell production and turnover.

5. Which clinical manifestations are recognized in nephrotic syndrome?

• A. Hematuria, bacteriuria, weight gain
• B. Gross hematuria, albuminuria, fever
• C. Hypertension, weight loss, proteinuria
• D. Massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema. In this syndrome, there is loss of proteins, particularly albumin, in the urine leading to hypoalbuminemia, fluid retention, and subsequent edema. This results in elevated lipid levels like hypercholesterolemia, but not hypertension. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Hematuria, bacteriuria, fever, and weight loss are not typically associated with nephrotic syndrome, distinguishing it from other kidney disorders.

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