Nursing Elites

1. The major difference between a grand mal and petit mal seizure is that a person with a grand mal seizure will have _______________ and the person with a petit mal seizure will not.

• A. convulsive movements
• B. sleep apnea
• C. atonic movements
• D. flaccidity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The major difference between a grand mal and petit mal seizure is the presence or absence of convulsive movements. Grand mal seizures are characterized by convulsive movements, including jerking of limbs and loss of consciousness. In contrast, petit mal seizures, also known as absence seizures, typically involve brief episodes of staring or eye blinking without convulsive movements. Therefore, choice A, 'convulsive movements,' is the correct answer. Choices B, 'sleep apnea,' and D, 'flaccidity,' are incorrect as they are not associated with the characteristics of grand mal or petit mal seizures. Choice C, 'atonic movements,' is also incorrect as petit mal seizures do not involve atonic movements, but rather absence behaviors such as staring spells.

2. A patient is undergoing a stress test on a treadmill and turns to talk to the nurse. Which of these statements would require the most immediate intervention?

• A. I'm feeling extremely thirsty and will get some water after this.
• B. I can feel my heart racing.
• C. My shoulder and arm are hurting.
• D. My blood pressure reading is 158/80

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: My shoulder and arm are hurting.' Unilateral arm and shoulder pain are classic symptoms of myocardial ischemia, indicating possible heart issues. In this scenario, immediate intervention is required, and the stress test should be halted. Choice A about feeling thirsty does not indicate an acute medical issue. Choice B mentioning heart racing is expected during a stress test. Choice D, a blood pressure reading of 158/80, while slightly elevated, does not present an immediate concern compared to the symptoms of arm and shoulder pain suggesting cardiac distress.

3. Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk for a stroke?

• A. A 60-year-old male who weighs 270 pounds, has atrial fibrillation, and has had a TIA in the past
• B. A 75-year-old male who has frequent migraines, drinks a glass of wine every day, and is Hispanic
• C. A 40-year-old female who has high cholesterol and uses oral contraceptives
• D. A 65-year-old female who is African American, has sickle cell disease, and smokes cigarettes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 60-year-old male who has a combination of significant risk factors for stroke, including atrial fibrillation, a history of a transient ischemic attack (TIA), and obesity. These factors greatly increase his risk of stroke. While other choices may have some individual risk factors, they do not collectively pose as high a risk as the patient described in option A. Option B includes migraines and alcohol consumption but lacks other major risk factors seen in option A. Option C mentions high cholesterol and oral contraceptives, which are risk factors but not as significant as atrial fibrillation and a prior TIA. Option D includes smoking and sickle cell disease but lacks the crucial risk factors present in option A.

4. After 2 months of tuberculosis (TB) treatment with isoniazid (INH), rifampin (Rifadin), pyrazinamide (PZA), and ethambutol, a patient continues to have positive sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli (AFB). Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Teach about drug-resistant TB treatment
• B. Ask the patient whether medications have been taken as directed
• C. Schedule the patient for directly observed therapy three times weekly
• D. Discuss with the healthcare provider the need for the patient to use an injectable antibiotic

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The first action should be to determine whether the patient has been compliant with drug therapy because negative sputum smears would be expected if the TB bacillus is susceptible to the medications and if the medications have been taken correctly. Assessment is the first step in the nursing process. Depending on whether the patient has been compliant or not, different medications or directly observed therapy may be indicated. The other options are interventions based on assumptions until an assessment has been completed. Teaching about drug-resistant TB treatment (Choice A) is premature without knowing the current medication compliance status. Scheduling directly observed therapy (Choice C) assumes non-compliance without confirming it first. Discussing the need for an injectable antibiotic (Choice D) is premature and not necessarily indicated without assessing the current medication adherence.

5. The nurse monitors a patient after chest tube placement for a hemopneumothorax. The nurse is most concerned if which assessment finding is observed?

• A. A large air leak in the water-seal chamber
• B. 400 mL of blood in the collection chamber
• C. Complaint of pain with each deep inspiration
• D. Subcutaneous emphysema at the insertion site

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should be most concerned if 400 mL of blood is observed in the collection chamber as it may indicate the patient is at risk of developing hypovolemic shock. A large air leak in the water-seal chamber is expected initially after chest tube placement for a pneumothorax. While pain with deep inspiration should be treated, it is not as urgent as the risk of continued hemorrhage. Subcutaneous emphysema is not uncommon in a patient with pneumothorax and is usually harmless. However, a large amount of blood in the collection chamber is a more critical finding that requires immediate attention to prevent potential complications.

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