Nursing Elites

1. The major difference between a grand mal and petit mal seizure is that a person with a grand mal seizure will have _______________ and the person with a petit mal seizure will not.

• A. convulsive movements
• B. sleep apnea
• C. atonic movements
• D. flaccidity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The major difference between a grand mal and petit mal seizure is the presence or absence of convulsive movements. Grand mal seizures are characterized by convulsive movements, including jerking of limbs and loss of consciousness. In contrast, petit mal seizures, also known as absence seizures, typically involve brief episodes of staring or eye blinking without convulsive movements. Therefore, choice A, 'convulsive movements,' is the correct answer. Choices B, 'sleep apnea,' and D, 'flaccidity,' are incorrect as they are not associated with the characteristics of grand mal or petit mal seizures. Choice C, 'atonic movements,' is also incorrect as petit mal seizures do not involve atonic movements, but rather absence behaviors such as staring spells.

2. A patient diagnosed with epilepsy is receiving discharge education from a nurse. Which of the following teachings should be emphasized the most?

• A. Avoid consuming alcohol and drugs
• B. Adhere to follow-up appointments with the neurologist, physician, or other healthcare provider as directed
• C. Continue taking anticonvulsants, even if seizures have ceased
• D. Wear a medical alert bracelet or carry an ID card indicating epilepsy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most critical teaching that the nurse should stress to a patient with epilepsy is to continue taking anticonvulsants even if seizures have stopped. Suddenly stopping antiepileptic drugs can lead to seizures and an increased risk of status epilepticus, a life-threatening condition. Choice A, advising to avoid alcohol and drugs, is important but not as crucial as maintaining anticonvulsant therapy. Choice B, emphasizing follow-up appointments, is essential but ensuring medication compliance is more critical to prevent seizure recurrence. Choice D, wearing a medical alert bracelet, is important for emergency identification but does not directly impact the patient's immediate safety like medication adherence does.

3. Why is it important to genotype HCV before initiating drug therapy?

• A. Side effects of nucleotide analogs
• B. Measures for improving the appetite
• C. Ways to increase activity and exercise
• D. Administering alpha-interferon (Intron A)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Genotyping of HCV plays a crucial role in managing treatment as it helps determine the most effective therapy for the specific viral strain. It allows healthcare providers to personalize treatment regimens and predict response rates. The statement about acute HCV infection converting to chronic state is accurate, highlighting the need for appropriate management. Immune globulin and vaccines are not available for HCV, and Ribavirin is commonly used for chronic HCV infection. Improving appetite is essential in liver health as adequate nutritional intake supports hepatocyte regeneration. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the specific importance of genotyping in HCV treatment or the significance of appetite improvement in liver function.

4. During shift change, a healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's medication. Which of the following medications would be contraindicated if the patient were pregnant?

• A. Warfarin (Coumadin)
• B. Celecoxib (Celebrex)
• C. Clonidine (Catapres)
• D. Transdermal nicotine (Habitrol)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Warfarin (Coumadin) is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its pregnancy category X classification. It is associated with central nervous system defects, spontaneous abortion, stillbirth, prematurity, hemorrhage, and ocular defects when administered at any time during pregnancy. Fetal warfarin syndrome can occur when given during the first trimester. Celecoxib (Celebrex) is a pregnancy category C medication, which means there may be risks but benefits may outweigh them. Clonidine (Catapres) is also a pregnancy category C drug, and while animal studies have shown adverse effects on the fetus, there are limited human studies. Transdermal nicotine (Habitrol) is classified as a pregnancy category D drug, indicating positive evidence of fetal risk, but benefits may still warrant its use in pregnant women with serious conditions.

5. After a bronchoscopy, what is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with a chronic cough?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 80 to 90 degrees.
• B. Keep the patient NPO until the gag reflex returns.
• C. Place the patient on bed rest for at least 4 hours after bronchoscopy.
• D. Notify the health care provider about blood-tinged mucus.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention is to keep the patient NPO until the gag reflex returns after a bronchoscopy. This is important because a local anesthetic is used during the procedure to suppress the gag and cough reflexes. Monitoring the return of these reflexes helps prevent the risk of aspiration and ensures the patient can safely resume oral intake. While blood-tinged mucus can occur after bronchoscopy, it is a common occurrence and not a cause for immediate concern. Placing the patient on bed rest for an extended period is unnecessary, and elevating the head of the bed to a high-Fowler's position is not specifically required post-bronchoscopy.

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