Nursing Elites

1. The major difference between a grand mal and petit mal seizure is that a person with a grand mal seizure will have _______________ and the person with a petit mal seizure will not.

• A. convulsive movements
• B. sleep apnea
• C. atonic movements
• D. flaccidity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The major difference between a grand mal and petit mal seizure is the presence or absence of convulsive movements. Grand mal seizures are characterized by convulsive movements, including jerking of limbs and loss of consciousness. In contrast, petit mal seizures, also known as absence seizures, typically involve brief episodes of staring or eye blinking without convulsive movements. Therefore, choice A, 'convulsive movements,' is the correct answer. Choices B, 'sleep apnea,' and D, 'flaccidity,' are incorrect as they are not associated with the characteristics of grand mal or petit mal seizures. Choice C, 'atonic movements,' is also incorrect as petit mal seizures do not involve atonic movements, but rather absence behaviors such as staring spells.

2. A 20-year-old female attending college is found unconscious in her dorm room. She has a fever and a noticeable rash. She has just been admitted to the hospital. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first?

• A. Blood sugar check
• B. CT scan
• C. Blood cultures
• D. Arterial blood gases

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most likely test to be performed first in this scenario is blood cultures. Blood cultures are crucial to investigate the fever and rash symptoms in an unconscious patient. This test is used to detect foreign invaders like bacteria, yeast, and other microorganisms in the blood, which could indicate a blood infection (bacteremia). A positive blood culture result confirms the presence of bacteria in the blood. A blood sugar check (choice A) may be important but is less likely to be the first test in this context. A CT scan (choice B) and arterial blood gases (choice D) are generally not the initial tests performed to investigate a fever and rash with altered mental status.

3. Why should a 30-year-old Caucasian woman who works the night shift take Vitamin D supplements?

• A. It's a standard part of the overall nutritional treatment for the prevention of osteomalacia.
• B. It helps your intestines absorb calcium, which is important for bone formation.
• C. It stimulates skin cells to produce calcium, which is then released into the bloodstream to be used for bone formation.
• D. Vitamin D supplements should not be taken by someone of your age.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It helps your intestines absorb calcium, which is important for bone formation.' Vitamin D plays a crucial role in aiding the absorption of calcium from the intestines into the bloodstream, which is essential for bone health and formation. Choice A is incorrect because it does not specifically address the role of Vitamin D in calcium absorption. Choice C is incorrect as Vitamin D does not stimulate skin cells to produce calcium; rather, it helps regulate calcium levels in the body. Choice D is incorrect as age alone is not a contraindication for Vitamin D supplementation; the need for supplementation is based on individual health status and risk factors.

4. A patient is admitted to the same-day surgery unit for a liver biopsy. Which of the following laboratory tests assesses coagulation? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Partial thromboplastin time
• B. Prothrombin time
• C. Platelet count
• D. Hemoglobin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hemoglobin.' Hemoglobin levels are not indicative of coagulation status but are important for assessing oxygen-carrying capacity. Choices A, B, and C are all laboratory tests that assess coagulation. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) and prothrombin time (PT) evaluate different aspects of the coagulation cascade, while platelet count is essential for assessing primary hemostasis. Therefore, in the context of evaluating coagulation, hemoglobin is not the appropriate choice.

5. A nurse frequently treats patients in the 72-hour period after a stroke has occurred. The nurse would be most concerned about which of these assessment findings?

• A. INR is 3 seconds long
• B. Heart rate is 110 beats per minute
• C. Intracranial Pressure is 22 mmHg
• D. Blood pressure is 140/80

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse would be most concerned about the assessment finding of an Intracranial Pressure (ICP) reading of 22 mmHg in a patient 72 hours post-stroke. Elevated ICP can indicate increased risk of edema and further brain damage. A target ICP should ideally be maintained at less than or equal to 15-20 mmHg. While the other options may also be important to monitor, an elevated ICP poses a more immediate threat to the patient's neurological status and requires prompt attention.

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