Nursing Elites

1. In a 24-year-old woman, the term used to define uterine bleeding in which there is no menstruation is:

• A. Oligomenorrhea
• B. Amenorrhea
• C. Menorrhagia
• D. Metrorrhagia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amenorrhea is the correct term for the absence of menstrual periods in a woman of childbearing age. It is typically defined as no menstruation for at least three consecutive cycles or six months. Oligomenorrhea refers to infrequent or irregular menstrual periods rather than complete absence. Menorrhagia is characterized by excessive menstrual bleeding, not the absence of menstruation. Metrorrhagia involves irregular, acyclic bleeding between menstrual periods, which is different from the absence of menstruation.

2. Which finding would necessitate an immediate change in the therapeutic plan for a patient with grade 2 hepatic encephalopathy?

• A. Weight loss of 2 lb (1 kg)
• B. Positive urine pregnancy test
• C. Hemoglobin level of 10.4 g/dL
• D. Complaints of nausea and anorexia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A positive urine pregnancy test would require an immediate change in the therapeutic plan for a patient with grade 2 hepatic encephalopathy due to the teratogenic effects of ribavirin. Ribavirin needs to be discontinued immediately to prevent harm to the fetus. The other options, weight loss, hemoglobin level, and complaints of nausea and anorexia, are common adverse effects of the prescribed regimen and may necessitate interventions such as patient education or supportive care, but they would not mandate an immediate cessation of therapy as in the case of a positive pregnancy test.

3. The nurse is caring for a 27-year-old female client with a venous stasis ulcer. Which nursing intervention would be most effective in promoting healing?

• A. Apply dressing using sterile technique
• B. Improve the client's nutrition status
• C. Initiate limb compression therapy
• D. Begin proteolytic debridement

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Venous stasis occurs when venous blood collects and stagnates in the lower leg due to incompetent venous valves. This leads to inadequate oxygen and nutrient supply to the cells in the lower extremities, resulting in cell death or necrosis. Venous stasis ulcers, characterized by shallow brown wounds with irregular margins, typically develop on the lower leg or ankle. The primary goal in managing clients with venous stasis ulcers is to promote healing. Proper nutrition plays a crucial role in wound healing. Nutritional deficiencies are common causes of venous ulcers, and a diet rich in protein, iron, zinc, and vitamins C and A is recommended to enhance wound healing. Applying dressings with sterile technique, initiating limb compression therapy, and beginning proteolytic debridement are important interventions in wound care but may not directly address the underlying issue of poor nutrition that is essential for healing venous stasis ulcers.

4. A patient underwent fiberoptic colonoscopy 18 hours ago and presents to the emergency department with increasing abdominal pain, fever, and chills. Which of the following conditions poses the most immediate concern?

• A. Bowel perforation
• B. Viral gastroenteritis
• C. Colon cancer
• D. Diverticulitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is bowel perforation. Bowel perforation is the most serious complication of fiberoptic colonoscopy, with signs such as progressive abdominal pain, fever, chills, and tachycardia indicating advancing peritonitis. Although colonoscopic perforation is rare (0.03% to 0.7% incidence), it can lead to high mortality and morbidity rates. Viral gastroenteritis (Choice B) typically presents with symptoms like diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps, but it is not the most immediate concern in this scenario. Colon cancer (Choice C) and diverticulitis (Choice D) are important conditions but are less likely to present acutely after colonoscopy compared to bowel perforation.

5. During the admission assessment of a client with chronic bilateral glaucoma, which statement by the client would the nurse anticipate due to this condition?

• A. "I have constant blurred vision."?
• B. "I can't see on my left side."?
• C. "I have to turn my head to see my room."?
• D. "I have specks floating in my eyes."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In chronic bilateral glaucoma, peripheral visual field loss occurs due to elevated intraocular pressure, leading to the need to turn the head to compensate for the visual field deficit. This symptom is characteristic of advanced glaucoma. Choice A is incorrect as constant blurred vision is a common symptom but not specific to peripheral vision loss in glaucoma. Choice B is incorrect because specific visual field deficits are more common than complete loss on one side. Choice D is incorrect as seeing floaters (specks floating in the eyes) is associated with other eye conditions like posterior vitreous detachment, not glaucoma.

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